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CBSE answer key 2021-22: Here’s class 10th term 1 board exam answers for your reference

Students who took the CBSE 10th Social Science term 1 board exam in 2021-22 can look for the answer key here. All the best!

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3 years ago

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CBSE answer key 2021-22: Here's class 10th term 1 board exam answers for your reference

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) SST Term 1 Class 10 Board Exam 2022 was successfully conducted yesterday from 11:00 am to 1:00 pm. The CBSE board has now released the answer key of the SST exam.

Students who took the CBSE 10th Social Science board exam in 2021-22 are looking for answers now. So, we have published the solution key for the CBSE Class 10 Social Science board exam 2021-22 in this.

For more information about CBSE Term 1 Exam of Class 10th, CLICK HERE

Disclaimer: This answer key is provided as a guide only, and is not final. Following the announcement of the results, the board is scheduled to provide the official CBSE Class 10 Social Science answer key.

Here are the answer key of CBSE Term 1 Exam 2021

  1. Industrialisation began in which one of the following European countries in the second half of the eighteenth century ?

(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) England

Answer: (d) England

  1. Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815 ?

(a) Conservative

(b) Liberal

(c) Federal

(d) Feudal

Answer: (a) Conservative

  1. Which one of the following group of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815 ?

(a) Britain, Russin, Prussia and Austria
(b) Britain, Russian, Prussia and Australia
(c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany
(d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy

Answer: (a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria

  1. In which one of the following countries did the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval take place in July 1830 ?

(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) England
(d) Italy

Answer: (a) France

  1. Who among the following remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold” ?

(a) Lord Byron
(b) Metternich
(c) Johann Herder
(d) Napoleon

Answer: (b) Metternich

  1. Who among the following was the architect for the unification of Germany ?

(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) William 1
(c) Frederick III
(d) William II

Answer: (a) Otto von Bismarck

  1. Who among the following had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic during the 1830s ?

(a) Victor Emmanuel I
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Count Cavour

Answer: (c) Giuseppe Mazzini

  1. In which one of the following states is overgrazing the main reason for land degradation ?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a) Maharashtra

  1. Identify the soil which ranges from red to brown in colour and saline in nature:

(a) Red soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Arid soil
(d) Alluvial soil

Answer: (c) Arid soil

  1. Which one of the following forces leads to maximum soil erosion in plains ?

(a) Wind
(b) Glacier
(c) Running water
(d) Earthquake

Answer: (c) Running water

  1. Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation in which one of the following states ?

(a) Odisha
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat

Answer: (a) Odisha

  1. Who among the following was proclaimed King of united Italy in 1861 ?

(a) Charles 1
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(d) Nero

Answer: (b) Victor Emmanuel II

  1. Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?

(a) Communication
(b) Trade
(c) Commerce
(d) Irrigation

Answer: (a) Communication

  1. Which one of the following elements is not included in the Belgium model ?

(a) Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.
(b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governmental
(c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation
(d) There is a community government that has special powers of administration

Answer: (d) There is a community government that has special powers of administration

  1. Which one of the following countries is the example of ‘Holding together federation’?

(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) U.S.A
(d) Switzerland

Answer:(b) India

  1. Which one of the following ethnic communities is in majority in Sri Lanka ?

(a) Sri Lankan Tamils
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Muslims
(d) Sinhalese

Answer: (d) Sinhalese

  1. Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list ?

(a) Banking
(b) Business
(c) Currency
(d) Communication

Answer: (b) Business

  1. Activities that help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors come under which one of the following sectors ?

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

Answer: (c) Tertiary

  1. Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options:

(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

Answer: (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government

  1. At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important of economic activity?

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

Answer: (a) Primary

  1. Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms come under which one of the following sectors ?

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

Answer: (b) Secondary

  1. The products received by exploiting natural resources come under which one of the following sectors ?

(a) Quaternary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) Primary

Answer: (d) Primary

  1. Which one of the following factors is mainly responsible for declining water level in India ?

(a) Irrigation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Over-utilization

Answer: (d) Over-utilization

  1. Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List ?

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Agriculture
(d) Marriage

Answer: (d) Marriage

  1. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): After Russian occupation in Poland, the Russian language was imposed on its people.
    Reason (R): The use of Polish soon came to be a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  1. Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848 and choose the correct option:
  1. Abdication of the monarch
  2. Universal male suffrage had been proclaimed
  3. Political Rights to women were given
  4. Freedom of the press had been asked for

(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 1 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Answer: (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

  1. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors in 1845. Reason (R): Contractors had drastically reduced their payments

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Ronson (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

  1. On which of the following modern aspects did the new Germany place a strong emphasis ?
  1. Currency 2. Banking 3. Legal system 4. Demography

(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

  1. Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house?

(a) Papal State
(b) Lombardy
(c) Venetia
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont

Answer: (d) Sardinia-Piedmont

  1. Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
  1. He was an Italian statesman.
  2. He spoke French much better than Italian
  3. He was a tactful diplomat.
  4. He belonged to a Royal family.

(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

  1. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval. Reason (R): Ethnic groups of Britain extended its influence.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

  1. Which among the following is not a problem of resource development?

(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
(d) An equitable distribution of resources

Answer: (d) An equitable distribution of resources

33. Which one of the following human activities has contributed most in land degradation?

(a) Deforestation
(b) Overgrazing
(c) Mining
(d) Over-irrigation

Answer: (a) Deforestation

34. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops.
Reason (R): This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Ronson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

  1. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option:
    Assertion (A): Majority community is dominant in a few democratic states
    Reason (R) : Dominance can undermine the unity of the country

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

Answer 35: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Answer 36: a
Answer 37: d
Answer 38: a
Answer 39: a
Answer 40: c
Answer 41: a
Answer 42: a
Answer 43: a
Answer 44: c
Answer 45: c
Answer 46: a
Answer 47: a
Answer 48: a
Answer 49: c
Answer 50: d
Answer 51: b
Answer 52: a
Answer 53: a
Answer 54: c
Answer 55: b
Answer 56: c
Answer 57: a
Answer 58: d

Map-Based Questions – 59 and 60 are Mandatory

Read Also: SkillMax Academy aims to train 10 lakh students in the next 3 years

  1. On the outline political map of India (on page 24) ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it!
    from the following options:
    (a) Tehri
    (b) Sardar Sarovar
    (c) Hirakud
    (d) Nagarjuna Sagar

Answer: (c) Hirakud

  1. On the same map ‘B’ is also marked as the largest Jute producer state. Identify it from the following options in
    (a) West Bengal
    (b) Bihar
    (c) Assam
    (d) Odisha

Answer: (a) West Bengal

Kindly refresh the website for questions.

For further details, students can check the date sheet of CBSE Term 1 Exam 2022 of class 10th.

Direct link to read the complete information of CBSE Term 1 Exam Class 10th.

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RailwayLevel1_1Lakh_VacancyDo trends as X users demand more vacancies

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1 day ago

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December 24, 2024

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RRB Vacancy

The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) has officially released the much-anticipated RRB Group D Notification for 2025, opening a staggering 32,438 vacancies within the Indian Railways. This large-scale recruitment drive offers a golden opportunity for candidates aspiring to secure a government job with substantial benefits.

The online registration process will begin on January 23, 2025, and will remain open until February 22, 2025. Aspiring candidates are encouraged to apply during this window to stand a chance to work with one of India’s largest and most respected organizations.

A prestigious career path

The recruitment is for Level 1 posts under the 7th Central Pay Commission (CPC) Pay Matrix, with an initial salary of Rs. 18,000 per month. Along with the competitive pay, selected candidates will also benefit from job security, travel allowances, and other perks. Indian Railways, known for its extensive and vital role in the nation’s transportation, promises employees an enriching career.

Candidates are advised to prepare thoroughly for the selection process, which will include a structured and transparent procedure, ensuring a fair chance for everyone interested in this prestigious opportunity.

Mixed reactions on X

As the notification went live, it sparked mixed reactions across social media platforms. On X, the hashtag #RailwayLevel1_1Lakh_VacancyDo trended as job seekers expressed both excitement and frustration. While many expressed gratitude for the large number of vacancies, some users took to X to voice concerns over the competitive nature of the recruitment process.

One user tweeted:

In response to the announcement of the 32,438 vacancies for RRB Group D posts, X users expressed their frustration over the limited number of openings, stating:

This sentiment is echoed by many, with users online questioning the adequacy of the number of positions available for the vast number of job seekers across the country.

X users voice concerns over timing of RRB Group D recruitment

Despite the differing opinions, the general sentiment remained positive, with most users acknowledging that the sheer number of vacancies increases the chances for a wider pool of candidates.

Looking ahead

Candidates eager to apply should stay updated with the official notifications and guidelines for the recruitment process. The release of the RRB Group D Notification 2025 marks an important milestone in the Indian Railways’ ongoing efforts to bolster its workforce and contribute to the country’s growth.

The recruitment process is expected to be highly competitive, and with only a month to apply, job seekers are urged to prepare diligently for this career-defining opportunity.

Stay tuned for more updates, and don’t forget to check out the RRB Group D notification screenshot shared in this post for detailed information.

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CAT 2024 results declared: 14 achieve 100 percentile, majority from Maharashtra

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5 days ago

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December 20, 2024

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The Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Calcutta has announced the Common Admission Test (CAT) 2024 results, bringing an end to the anticipation of nearly 2.93 lakh aspirants. Candidates can now access their scorecards by logging in with their registration number and password on the official website iimcat.ac.in.

This year, 14 candidates secured the prestigious 100 percentile. Notably, 13 of them come from engineering backgrounds, while only one is a non-engineer. Among the top performers, there is just one woman. Maharashtra emerged as a stronghold for top scorers, with the majority hailing from the state.

The provisional answer key was released on December 3, with candidates given until December 5 to raise objections. However, no changes were made to the provisional keys.

Experts have described CAT 2024 as relatively easier compared to the past two years, leading to expectations of higher cut-offs for admission.

Out of the total 2.93 lakh candidates who appeared for the test:

  • 1.86 lakh were male candidates,
  • 1.07 lakh were female candidates, and
  • 5 candidates identified as transgender.

This diverse group of test-takers reflects the growing interest in management education across all demographics.

Candidates with valid CAT 2024 scores can now register for admission to postgraduate programmes at IIMs and other participating institutes. The final selection process will consider the CAT score, along with other criteria like academic performance, work experience, and performance in rounds such as the Written Ability Test (WAT), Group Discussion (GD), and Personal Interview (PI).

The CAT exam continues to serve as a gateway to the country’s top business schools, paving the way for aspirants to excel in diverse fields of management and entrepreneurship.

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10 schools in Kanpur get bomb blast threat through emails

The district administration has rushed the bomb disposal squad to the schools in order to sanitise the premises. Joint Commissioner of Police Law and Order, Harish Chander said the police’s cyber cell is investigating the matter.

Published

7 months ago

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May 15, 2024

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At least 10 schools in Kanpur received threatening emails on Wednesday which triggered panic in the city. This comes after a number of such emails threatening schools and hospitals with bomb blasts in many cities across India, including Delhi were received. The emails have come through servers which are based in Russia.

According to reports, the emails threatened to blow up the schools. The district administration has rushed the bomb disposal squad to the schools in order to sanitise the premises. Joint Commissioner of Police Law and Order, Harish Chander said the police’s cyber cell is investigating the matter.

Speaking to the media, Chander said the Kanpur Police received information about a bomb threat to various schools. The cyber cell is investigating the matter. All officials have been instructed to monitor CCTV footage thoroughly to establish a link between this threat and previous bomb threats which were received by multiple schools, airports and hospitals.

He also urged parents not to a panic. On Tuesday, 8 schools in Bengaluru received emails threatening bomb blasts. Last week, the city’s popular hospital chain, St Philomena, received a bomb threat email. All these bomb threat emails later turned out to be hoaxes.

 Bhavan Bangalore School, Bengaluru Scottish School, Deeksha High School, Jain Heritage School, Chitrakoota School, Edify Schools, Giridhanva School and Gangothri International Public School were among those that received the threat email from the same domain, Beeble.com.

Delhi’s GTB Hospital, Deep Chand Bandhu Hospital, Hedgewar Hospital and Dada Dev Hospital also received bomb threats via email. The city’s administration scrambled bomb detection team, the bomb disposal squad, fire department and the local police to conduct searches. Over the last one month, Indira Gandhi International Airport, over 20 hospitals and more than 100 schools across Delhi-NCR region have received such threats, but all of them turned out to be hoaxes. On Monday, over 50 schools in Jaipur received similar bomb threat emails.

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