The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) SST Term 1 Class 10 Board Exam 2022 was successfully conducted yesterday from 11:00 am to 1:00 pm. The CBSE board has now released the answer key of the SST exam.
Students who took the CBSE 10th Social Science board exam in 2021-22 are looking for answers now. So, we have published the solution key for the CBSE Class 10 Social Science board exam 2021-22 in this.
Disclaimer: This answer key is provided as a guide only, and is not final. Following the announcement of the results, the board is scheduled to provide the official CBSE Class 10 Social Science answer key.
Here are the answer key of CBSE Term 1 Exam 2021
Industrialisation began in which one of the following European countries in the second half of the eighteenth century ?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) Italy (d) England
Answer: (d) England
Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815 ?
(a) Conservative
(b) Liberal
(c) Federal
(d) Feudal
Answer: (a) Conservative
Which one of the following group of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815 ?
(a) Britain, Russin, Prussia and Austria (b) Britain, Russian, Prussia and Australia (c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany (d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy
Answer: (a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
In which one of the following countries did the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval take place in July 1830 ?
(a) France (b) Germany (c) England (d) Italy
Answer: (a) France
Who among the following remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold” ?
(a) Lord Byron (b) Metternich (c) Johann Herder (d) Napoleon
Answer: (b) Metternich
Who among the following was the architect for the unification of Germany ?
(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) William 1 (c) Frederick III (d) William II
Answer: (a) Otto von Bismarck
Who among the following had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic during the 1830s ?
(a) Victor Emmanuel I (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Count Cavour
Answer: (c) Giuseppe Mazzini
In which one of the following states is overgrazing the main reason for land degradation ?
Which one of the following forces leads to maximum soil erosion in plains ?
(a) Wind (b) Glacier (c) Running water (d) Earthquake
Answer: (c) Running water
Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation in which one of the following states ?
(a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Gujarat
Answer: (a) Odisha
Who among the following was proclaimed King of united Italy in 1861 ?
(a) Charles 1 (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Giuseppe Garibaldi (d) Nero
Answer: (b) Victor Emmanuel II
Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?
(a) Communication (b) Trade (c) Commerce (d) Irrigation
Answer: (a) Communication
Which one of the following elements is not included in the Belgium model ?
(a) Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the government. (b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governmental (c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation (d) There is a community government that has special powers of administration
Answer: (d) There is a community government that has special powers of administration
Which one of the following countries is the example of ‘Holding together federation’?
(a) Australia (b) India (c) U.S.A (d) Switzerland
Answer:(b) India
Which one of the following ethnic communities is in majority in Sri Lanka ?
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Muslims (d) Sinhalese
Answer: (d) Sinhalese
Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list ?
(a) Banking (b) Business (c) Currency (d) Communication
Answer: (b) Business
Activities that help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors come under which one of the following sectors ?
Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options:
(a) There are two or more levels of government. (b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens. (c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction. (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
Answer: (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government
At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important of economic activity?
Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List ?
(a) Trade (b) Commerce (c) Agriculture (d) Marriage
Answer: (d) Marriage
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): After Russian occupation in Poland, the Russian language was imposed on its people. Reason (R): The use of Polish soon came to be a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848 and choose the correct option:
Abdication of the monarch
Universal male suffrage had been proclaimed
Political Rights to women were given
Freedom of the press had been asked for
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 1 and 4 are correct. (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors in 1845. Reason (R): Contractors had drastically reduced their payments
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true but Ronson (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (a)
On which of the following modern aspects did the new Germany place a strong emphasis ?
Currency 2. Banking 3. Legal system 4. Demography
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 3 and 4 are correct. (d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Answer: (d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house?
(a) Papal State (b) Lombardy (c) Venetia (d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer: (d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
He was an Italian statesman.
He spoke French much better than Italian
He was a tactful diplomat.
He belonged to a Royal family.
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct. (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Answer: (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval. Reason (R): Ethnic groups of Britain extended its influence.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Which among the following is not a problem of resource development?
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals (b) Accumulation of resources in few hands (c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources (d) An equitable distribution of resources
Answer: (d) An equitable distribution of resources
33. Which one of the following human activities has contributed most in land degradation?
34. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. Reason (R): This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Ronson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): Majority community is dominant in a few democratic states Reason (R) : Dominance can undermine the unity of the country
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer 35: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Answer 36: a Answer 37: d Answer 38: a Answer 39: a Answer 40: c Answer 41: a Answer 42: a Answer 43: a Answer 44: c Answer 45: c Answer 46: a Answer 47: a Answer 48: a Answer 49: c Answer 50: d Answer 51: b Answer 52: a Answer 53: a Answer 54: c Answer 55: b Answer 56: c Answer 57: a Answer 58: d
On the outline political map of India (on page 24) ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it! from the following options: (a) Tehri (b) Sardar Sarovar (c) Hirakud (d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer: (c) Hirakud
On the same map ‘B’ is also marked as the largest Jute producer state. Identify it from the following options in (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) Odisha
Answer: (a) West Bengal
Kindly refresh the website for questions.
For further details, students can check the date sheet of CBSE Term 1 Exam 2022 of class 10th.
BPSC 70th prelims result 2024 out: Here’s direct link to check
The BPSC has also released the cutoff marks for the CCE, providing candidates with valuable insight into the performance benchmarks. The cut-off scores vary across different categories, reflecting the commission’s commitment to inclusivity and equal opportunity.
The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) released the results for the 70th Preliminary Examination on January 23, 2025. Candidates can view their results on the official BPSC website, bpsc.bih.nic.in. The results include those for the Combined Competitive Examination (CCE), Finance Administrative Officer, and Child Development Project Officer positions.
This year’s examination covered a wide range of posts, including those under the Combined Competitive Examination (CCE), Finance Administrative Officer (FAO), and Child Development Project Officer (CDPO). The release of these results marks a significant step forward for thousands of candidates pursuing careers in public service within Bihar.
The BPSC 70th Preliminary Examination, conducted on December 13th and January 4th, 2025, witnessed a massive turnout of 328,990 candidates. This substantial number underscores the immense competition and the high stakes involved in securing a government position in Bihar. The results, however, reveal a more selective outcome.
A total of 21,581 candidates successfully cleared the preliminary round for the CCE, demonstrating their competence and readiness to progress to the subsequent stages of the recruitment process. For the specialized roles of FAO and CDPO, a considerably smaller, yet still significant number of candidates qualified. 61 individuals successfully passed the preliminary examination for FAO positions, while 144 candidates qualified for CDPO posts.
The BPSC has also released the cutoff marks for the CCE, providing candidates with valuable insight into the performance benchmarks. The cut-off scores vary across different categories, reflecting the commission’s commitment to inclusivity and equal opportunity.
Cut-off Marks:
Unreserved: 91
Unreserved Female: 81
EWS: 83
EWS Female: 73
SC: 70
SC Female: 55
ST/ST Female: 65
How to Check Your Results:
Go to bpsc.bih.nic.in.
Locate and click the “BPSC 70th Prelims Result 2024” link.
A PDF containing the results will open. Download and save a copy for your records.
Examination Results: The Bihar prelims exam, held on December 13th and January 4th, 2025, saw 328,990 candidates. The following number passed:
The National Testing Agency (NTA) has announced the release of the admit card for the JEE Mains 2025, Session 1, on its official website. Candidates who have registered for the Joint Entrance Examination 2025 can download their hall ticket by visiting the official NTA JEE website at jeemain.nta.nic.in. Admit cards for the exam dates of January 22, 23, and 24 are now available for download.
To access the admit card, candidates must input their login credentials, including their application number and password. The JEE Mains Session 1 will take place on January 22, 23, 24, 28, and 29, 2025, for Paper I, while Paper 2 is scheduled for January 30, 2025. The NTA will conduct the examination at numerous centers across India, as well as in 15 international cities.
The JEE Main 2025 consists of two papers: Paper 1 (for B.E/B.Tech) and Paper 2 (for B.Arch and B.Planning). The registration period began on October 28, 2024, and ended on November 22, 2024. Paper 1 will be conducted in two shifts: the first shift is from 9 AM to 12 noon, and the second shift is from 3 PM to 6 PM. Paper 2 will be held in a single shift from 3 PM to 6:30 PM.
How to Download JEE Main 2025 Admit Card: Candidates can follow these steps to download their admit card:
Go to the official JEE Main website at jeemain.nta.nic.in.
Click on the link for “JEE Main Admit Card 2025” available on the homepage.
A new page will appear where candidates need to enter their login information.
Click on “Submit,” and the admit card will be displayed.
Review the admit card and download the document.
Print a hard copy for future reference.
The JEE Main 2025 examination will be offered in 13 languages and consists of two papers. The examination will be conducted in both online and offline modes:
Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) will be in a Computer-Based Test (CBT) format.
Paper 2A (B.Arch) will include Mathematics (Part I) and Aptitude Test (Part II) in CBT mode, with the Drawing Test (Part III) conducted via pen and paper on an A4-sized drawing sheet.
Paper 2B (B.Planning) includes Mathematics (Part I), Aptitude Test (Part II), and Planning-Based Questions (Part III) all in CBT mode.
The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) has officially announced the results of the JKP Constable examination for 2024 on their website. Candidates who participated in the written tests can now verify their outcomes by logging in with their credentials on the JKSSB portal.
The exams, aimed to fill approximately 4,002 constable vacancies in the Jammu and Kashmir Police, were conducted on December 1, 8, and 22, 2024. They were carried out in an offline OMR-based format, covering areas such as General Knowledge, Aptitude, and role-specific skills, consisting of 100 multiple-choice questions.
Candidates who have successfully passed the written examination are now eligible to progress to the next phase, which includes the Physical Standard Test (PST) and the Physical Endurance Test (PET). The PST will assess the height and chest measurements of the candidates, followed by the PET, which requires male candidates to complete a 1,600-meter run in 6.5 minutes and female candidates to complete a 1,000-meter run in the same time.
Here are the steps to check the JKP Constable Result 2024:
Step 2: Click on the ‘Provisional result Notice regarding Written Examination for the post of Constable (SDRF/IRP/Armed/Executive), Home Department’ link on the homepage.
Step 3: Access the result PDF directly from the homepage.
Step 4: Download and save the document for future reference.
Shortlisted candidates are advised to prepare for the physical tests, which are crucial for final selection to the constable posts in the Jammu and Kashmir Police.
APN News is today the most watched and the most credible and respected news channel in India. APN has been at the forefront of every single news revolution. The channel is being recognized for its in-depth, analytical reportage and hard hitting discussions on burning issues; without any bias or vested interests.
Entertainment21 hours ago
India News22 hours ago
