The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) SST Term 1 Class 10 Board Exam 2022 was successfully conducted yesterday from 11:00 am to 1:00 pm. The CBSE board has now released the answer key of the SST exam.
Students who took the CBSE 10th Social Science board exam in 2021-22 are looking for answers now. So, we have published the solution key for the CBSE Class 10 Social Science board exam 2021-22 in this.
Disclaimer: This answer key is provided as a guide only, and is not final. Following the announcement of the results, the board is scheduled to provide the official CBSE Class 10 Social Science answer key.
Here are the answer key of CBSE Term 1 Exam 2021
Industrialisation began in which one of the following European countries in the second half of the eighteenth century ?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) Italy (d) England
Answer: (d) England
Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815 ?
(a) Conservative
(b) Liberal
(c) Federal
(d) Feudal
Answer: (a) Conservative
Which one of the following group of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815 ?
(a) Britain, Russin, Prussia and Austria (b) Britain, Russian, Prussia and Australia (c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany (d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy
Answer: (a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
In which one of the following countries did the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval take place in July 1830 ?
(a) France (b) Germany (c) England (d) Italy
Answer: (a) France
Who among the following remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold” ?
(a) Lord Byron (b) Metternich (c) Johann Herder (d) Napoleon
Answer: (b) Metternich
Who among the following was the architect for the unification of Germany ?
(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) William 1 (c) Frederick III (d) William II
Answer: (a) Otto von Bismarck
Who among the following had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic during the 1830s ?
(a) Victor Emmanuel I (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Count Cavour
Answer: (c) Giuseppe Mazzini
In which one of the following states is overgrazing the main reason for land degradation ?
Which one of the following forces leads to maximum soil erosion in plains ?
(a) Wind (b) Glacier (c) Running water (d) Earthquake
Answer: (c) Running water
Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation in which one of the following states ?
(a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Gujarat
Answer: (a) Odisha
Who among the following was proclaimed King of united Italy in 1861 ?
(a) Charles 1 (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Giuseppe Garibaldi (d) Nero
Answer: (b) Victor Emmanuel II
Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?
(a) Communication (b) Trade (c) Commerce (d) Irrigation
Answer: (a) Communication
Which one of the following elements is not included in the Belgium model ?
(a) Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the government. (b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governmental (c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation (d) There is a community government that has special powers of administration
Answer: (d) There is a community government that has special powers of administration
Which one of the following countries is the example of ‘Holding together federation’?
(a) Australia (b) India (c) U.S.A (d) Switzerland
Answer:(b) India
Which one of the following ethnic communities is in majority in Sri Lanka ?
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Muslims (d) Sinhalese
Answer: (d) Sinhalese
Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list ?
(a) Banking (b) Business (c) Currency (d) Communication
Answer: (b) Business
Activities that help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors come under which one of the following sectors ?
Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options:
(a) There are two or more levels of government. (b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens. (c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction. (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
Answer: (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government
At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important of economic activity?
Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List ?
(a) Trade (b) Commerce (c) Agriculture (d) Marriage
Answer: (d) Marriage
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): After Russian occupation in Poland, the Russian language was imposed on its people. Reason (R): The use of Polish soon came to be a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848 and choose the correct option:
Abdication of the monarch
Universal male suffrage had been proclaimed
Political Rights to women were given
Freedom of the press had been asked for
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 1 and 4 are correct. (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors in 1845. Reason (R): Contractors had drastically reduced their payments
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true but Ronson (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (a)
On which of the following modern aspects did the new Germany place a strong emphasis ?
Currency 2. Banking 3. Legal system 4. Demography
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 3 and 4 are correct. (d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Answer: (d) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house?
(a) Papal State (b) Lombardy (c) Venetia (d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer: (d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
He was an Italian statesman.
He spoke French much better than Italian
He was a tactful diplomat.
He belonged to a Royal family.
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct. (d) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Answer: (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option. Assertion (A): In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval. Reason (R): Ethnic groups of Britain extended its influence.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Which among the following is not a problem of resource development?
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals (b) Accumulation of resources in few hands (c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources (d) An equitable distribution of resources
Answer: (d) An equitable distribution of resources
33. Which one of the following human activities has contributed most in land degradation?
34. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. Reason (R): This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Ronson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statement and choose the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): Majority community is dominant in a few democratic states Reason (R) : Dominance can undermine the unity of the country
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A) (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer 35: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Renson (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Answer 36: a Answer 37: d Answer 38: a Answer 39: a Answer 40: c Answer 41: a Answer 42: a Answer 43: a Answer 44: c Answer 45: c Answer 46: a Answer 47: a Answer 48: a Answer 49: c Answer 50: d Answer 51: b Answer 52: a Answer 53: a Answer 54: c Answer 55: b Answer 56: c Answer 57: a Answer 58: d
On the outline political map of India (on page 24) ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it! from the following options: (a) Tehri (b) Sardar Sarovar (c) Hirakud (d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer: (c) Hirakud
On the same map ‘B’ is also marked as the largest Jute producer state. Identify it from the following options in (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) Odisha
Answer: (a) West Bengal
Kindly refresh the website for questions.
For further details, students can check the date sheet of CBSE Term 1 Exam 2022 of class 10th.
Amazon is preparing to lay off around 30,000 corporate employees this week, marking its biggest job reduction since late 2022, when it eliminated about 27,000 positions. The move is part of CEO Andy Jassy’s ongoing effort to streamline operations and counter overhiring during the pandemic-driven boom.
Largest corporate layoff since 2022
The planned layoffs will affect nearly 10% of Amazon’s corporate workforce — roughly 350,000 employees — though it represents a small portion of the company’s overall 1.55 million-strong staff. The job cuts are expected across multiple departments, including human resources (People Experience and Technology), operations, devices and services, and Amazon Web Services (AWS).
Managers in affected teams were trained on Monday to handle the layoff process before email notifications began rolling out Tuesday morning.
Efficiency push and AI automation
The restructuring comes as Jassy pushes to reduce “bureaucracy” and simplify management layers. Amazon has even introduced an anonymous complaint line to flag inefficiencies, reportedly leading to over 450 process changes.
The company’s increased adoption of artificial intelligence tools has accelerated the shift. Jassy previously said AI automation would eliminate repetitive tasks, potentially reducing headcount. Analysts believe Amazon is realizing significant productivity gains through these technologies, supporting its decision to trim staff.
Pressure on AWS and holiday hiring plans
While AWS remains Amazon’s largest profit driver, its recent growth has lagged behind competitors. AWS reported $30.9 billion in second-quarter sales — up 17.5% — compared to 39% for Microsoft Azure and 32% for Google Cloud. Estimates indicate AWS revenue rose to $32 billion in the third quarter, marking a slight slowdown.
Despite the layoffs, Amazon plans to hire 250,000 seasonal workers ahead of the holiday shopping season, maintaining the same level as the previous two years.
Stock reaction and internal reshuffling
Amazon shares rose 1.2% to $226.97 on Monday, just days ahead of its third-quarter earnings announcement. The company also reorganized a segment of its human resources division focused on diversity initiatives, promoting several employees into new roles.
CBSE releases tentative datesheets for Class 10, 12 board exams 2026
CBSE has released the tentative schedule for Class 10 and 12 board exams 2026. The exams will run from February 17 to July 15, 2026, for over 45 lakh students across India and 26 countries.
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has announced the tentative datesheets for the Class 10 and Class 12 board examinations for the academic year 2025-26. According to the notification, the exams will be conducted between February 17 and July 15, 2026.
CBSE said that around 45 lakh students are expected to appear in the board examinations, covering 204 subjects across India and 26 countries abroad.
Exams To Be Conducted
The schedule covers multiple categories of examinations, including:
Main Examinations for Classes 10 and 12
Examinations for Sports Students (Class 12)
Second Board Examinations (Class 10)
Supplementary Examinations (Class 12)
Along with the written tests, the board will also coordinate practical exams, evaluation, and post-result processes to ensure timely completion and declaration of results.
Evaluation Timeline
CBSE has outlined a structured plan for evaluation. The checking of answer sheets will begin about 10 days after each subject’s exam and is expected to be completed within 12 days.
For example, if the Class 12 Physics exam is held on February 20, 2026, the evaluation process will start on March 3 and conclude by March 15.
Tentative Datesheets
The board clarified that these date sheets are tentative. The final versions will be released after schools submit the final list of candidates appearing for the examinations.
The CBSE has urged schools and students to treat these dates as indicative and to continue their preparations in accordance with the tentative schedule.
SBI clerk recruitment 2025: Registration begins for 6,589 vacancies, apply now
State Bank of India has initiated the recruitment for 6,589 clerk posts. Online application is now open for eligible candidates with exams scheduled for September and November 2025.
The State Bank of India (SBI) has officially started the registration process for SBI Clerk Recruitment 2025, inviting applications for 6,589 Junior Associate (Clerk) posts. The online application window opened on August 6, 2025, and interested candidates can apply through the official SBI website.
Of the total vacancies, 5,180 are regular and 1,409 are backlog vacancies. The category-wise breakdown includes 2,255 for General, 788 for SC, 450 for ST, 1,179 for OBC, and 508 for EWS candidates.
Eligibility criteria
Educational Qualification: Applicants must hold a graduation degree in any discipline from a recognised university. Final-year students are also eligible, provided they complete their degree by December 31, 2025.
Age Limit: Candidates should be between 20 to 28 years as of April 1, 2025 (born between April 2, 1997 and April 1, 2005). Age relaxation is applicable as per government rules.
Selection process
The recruitment process involves three stages:
Preliminary Examination: A 100-mark online test to screen candidates.
Main Examination: Comprises 190 questions, carrying 200 marks, with a duration of 2 hours and 40 minutes.
Language Proficiency Test: Required for those who haven’t studied the local language in Class 10 or 12.
Importantly, only the marks scored in the Main Exam will determine the final merit list, subject to document verification and the language test.
Exam schedule
Preliminary Exam (Tier 1): September 2025
Main Exam (Tier 2): November 2025
Application fee
General/OBC/EWS: ₹750
SC/ST/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen: Exempted from fee
Salary and benefits
Selected candidates will receive a monthly salary ranging from ₹24,050 to ₹64,480 as per the SBI pay scale.
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