CBSE class 12th sociology term 1 board exam answer key, check here
Those who appeared for the examination want to know if their answer was correct or not. Well, if you are stressing about it then here is the answer key of the Sociology class 12th board exam.
Exams! The word which horrifies students the most. But what creates panic among students is discussing the question paper after coming out of the exam centre.
For the unversed, CBSE is conducting board exams term 1 for class 10th and class 12th students. Yesterday, CBSE conducted the first exam for class 12th which was Sociology from 11:30 am to 1 pm.
This year the format of board exams is different. The exams will be held in Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) format. Those who appeared for the examination want to know if their answer was correct or not. Well, if you are stressing about it then here is the answer key of the Sociology class 12th exam.
1. The ways in which individuals may become cut off from full involvement in the wider society is known as
(a) Social Inclusion
(b) Social Inequality
(c) Social Exclusion
(d) Social Stratification
Answer: (c) Social Exclusion
2. What is Sex-Ratio?
(a) Number of females per thousand males
(b) Number of males per thousand females
(c) Number of females per hundred males
(d) The study of population growth
Answer: (a) Number of females per thousand males
3. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of
(a) High death rate
(b) High birth rate
(c) High life expectancy
(d) More married couples
Answer: (b) High birth rate
4. The proportion of person in different age group relative to the total population is known as
(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Age Structure
(c) Occupation Structure
(d) Age Composition
*Answer: (d) Age Composition
5. Which programme became a significant part of Congress agenda? (a) Anti caste programme (b) Anti untouchability (c) Regionalism (d) Communalism Answer: (b) Anti untouchability
6. Matrilocal and patrilocal type of family is based on (a) Authority (b) Power (c) Inheritance (d) Residence Answer: (d) Residence
7. When did the National Population Policy came into effect ? (a) 2001 (b) 1947 (c) 1952 (d) 2005
Answer: *
8. The pyramid for 2026 shows the estimated future size of the relevant age groups based on the past rates of growth of each age group. Such estimates are called (a) Age pyramid (b) Demographic dividend (c) Projections (d) Rate of natural increase Answer: (c) Projections
9. The live birth per one thousand person in one year in a particular area is known as (a) Death rate (b) Birth rate (c) Fertility rate (d) Infant mortality rate *Answer: (b) Birth rate
10. The hierarchical ordering of caste is based on the distinction between (a) Role and status (b) Religion and rituals (c) Norms and authority (d) Purity and pollution Answer: (d) Purity and pollution
11. The English word Casta is actually a borrowing from the (a) Greek word (b) Indian word (c) Portuguese word (d) None of the above Answer:* (c) Portuguese word
12. Theoretically the caste system can be understood as the combination of the two sets of principles :
(a) Differences and Separation
(b) Wholism and Hierarchy
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Differences and Separation
13. Which of the following is not a permanent trait of tribes in India
(a) Region
(b) Ecological habitat
(c) Mode of livelihood
(d) Language
14. Who was the founder of Satyashodak Samaj having its primary emphasis on truth seeking ?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer: (b) Jyotiba Phule
15. The preconceived opinion or attitudes held by members of one group towards another is known as
(a) Stereotype
(b) Social inequalities
(c) Prejudices
(d) Discrimination
Answer: (c) Prejudices
16. The ______ or tribes were believed to be people of the forest whose distinctive habitat in the hill and forest areas shaped their Economic, Social and Political attributes.
(a) Nairs
(b) Jana
(c) Dikus
(d) Khasis
Answer: (b) Jana
17. A system in which categories of people in a society are ranked in a
hierarchy.
(a) Caste
(b) Prejudices
(c) Discrimination
(d) Social stratification
Answer: (d) Social stratification
18. When religious identity overrides everything else it leads to
(a) Secularism
(b) Communalism
(c) Nation-state
(d) Diversity
Answer: (b) Communalism
19. Community Identity is based on (a) Birth (c) Class (b) Status (d) Acquired Qualification Answer: (a) Birth
20. A policy that promote aimed or encourage all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms is known as (a) Integrationist (b) Assimilation (c) Community Identity (d) None of the above Answer: (b) Assimilation
21. A Nation is a peculiar sort of community that is easy to __but hard to define. (a) understand (b) approach (c) define (d) describe Answer: (d) describe
19. Community Identity is based on (a) Birth (c) Class (b) Status (d) Acquired Qualification Answer: (a) Birth
20. A policy that promote aimed or encourage all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms is known as (a) Integrationist (b) Assimilation (c) Community Identity (d) None of the above Answer: (b) Assimilation
21. A Nation is a peculiar sort of community that is easy to __but hard to define. (a) understand (b) approach (c) define (d) describe Answer: (d) describe
22. Indian people had a brief experience of which rule during the emergency enforced between June 1975 and Jan. 1977? (a) Democratic (b) Authoritarian rule (c) Colonial (d) None of these Answer: (b) Authoritarian rule
23. The unprecedented scale and spread of anti-muslim violence in Gujarat in 2002 took place under which government? (a) Congress (b) BJP (c) Democratic (d) Republican Answer: (b) BJP
24. Which of the following statement is not true about disability? (a) People are always born with disability (b) The disabled are rendered disable because the society renders them to do. (c) There is a correlation between disability and poverty. (d) Public perception of disability is based on cultural conception. Answer: (d) Public perception of disability is based on cultural conception.
25. Stereotypes fix whole group into single ________ group. (a) Homogeneous (b) Heterogeneous (c) Broad (d) Diverse Answer: (a) Homogeneous
26. 1. According to Malthusian theory, supply of food grains increase geometric progression. 2. The population grows in arithmetic progression. Which is true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None Answer: (d)
27. The rapid growth in _____ shows that town or city has been acting as a magnet for the rural population. (a) Modernization (b) Urbanization (c) Sanskritisation (d) Westernization Answer: (b) Urbanization
28. Which of the following helped to control epidemics in India over a period of time? (a) Improvement in communication (b) Decrease in death rate (c) Improvement in sanitation (d) Improvement in agricultural productivity Answer: (c) Improvement in sanitation
29. Who was the Chief Architect of the Indian Constitution? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) J.L. Nehru (d) None of the above Answer: (b) B.R. Ambedkar
30. Assertion (A): The inequalities in the literacy rate are especially important because they tend to reproduce inequality across generations. Reason (R) : Literacy rate also vary by social group. Historically disadvantaged communities like the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have a lower rate of literacy. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. Answer:* (a)
31. The watchwords One Caste One Religion One God for all men were given by (a) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule (b) Ayyankali (c) Savitri Bai Phule (d) Sri Narayana Guru Answer: (d) Sri Narayana Guru
32. What does Amartya Sen mean by failure of entitlements? (a) The inability of people to buy or otherwise to obtain food (b) Famines (c) Vulnerability to variations in rainfall (a) Lack of adequate means of transport and communication Answer: (a) The inability of people to buy or otherwise to obtain food
33. When the difference between Birth rate and the Death rate is zero we say that the population has stabilized or has reached the (a) stabilization level (b) highest level (c) replacement level (d) highest point Answer: (c) replacement level
34. The 93rd Amendment Act has introduced the reservation for the institution in higher education for which group? (a) Scheduled Castes (b) Scheduled Tribes (c) OBC (d) Disabled Group Answer: (c) OBC
35. Assertion (A): Matriarchy unlike Patriarchy has been a theoretical rather than an empirical concept. Reason (R): There is no Historical or Anthropological evidence of matriarchy i.e. societies where women exercises dominance. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is true but (R) is false. Answer: (a)
36. In regions where the non-Sanskritic castes were dominant, it was their influence that was stronger. Identify the most appropriate concept to refer this. (a) Sanskritisation (b) Westernisation (c) De-Sanskritisation (d) Modernisation Answer: (c) De-Sanskritisation
37. Out of the total tribal population how much percentage of the tribal population lives in middle India? (a) 85% (b) 11% (c) 58% (d) 74% Answer: (a) 85%
38. Which of the following is not a correct statement about the term Jati? (a) It is a local classification that varies from region to region. (b) It has a segmental organisation. (c) Membership of Jati involves rules about food and food sharing. (d) It is an all India aggregative classification. Answer: (d) It is an all India aggregative classification.
39. What are the laws that allow citizens of a particular state to simultaneously be the citizen of another state? (a) Cross border citizenship laws (b) Multiple citizenship laws (c) Dual citizenship (d) None Answer: (c) Dual citizenship
40. Assertion (A) : In Indian Nationalism, the dominant trend was marked by an inclusive and democratic vision. Reason (R) : It was democratic because it recognised Diversity and Plurality. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true and (R) is false. (d) (A) is false and (R) is true. Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
41. Which of the following does not stand for secularism? (a) Separation of State and Church (b) Not favouring a particular Religion. (c) Religion identity overriding everything else. (d) Progressive retreat of religion from public life. Answer:* (c) Religion identity overriding everything else.
42. Which of the following is the major issue that challenges the diversity of India ? (a) Regionalism (b) Communalism (c) Casteism (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these
43. Everyone has a motherland, a mother tongue, a family and a faith. This signifies an important feature of community identity, that is (a) Achieved (b) Conditional (c) Localised (d) Universal
44. Assertion (A): There is a close relationship between disability poverty. Reasoning (R): Malnutrition mothers weakened by frequent childbirth, inadequate immunisation programmes, accidents in overcrowded homes, all contribute to an incidence of disability among poor people that is higher (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is true and (R) is false. Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
45. Asset and Income is a form of which type of capital? (a) Social capital (b) Cultural capital (c) Economic capital (d) General capital Answer: (c) Economic capital
46. What is Social about Social Inequality? (a) They are Social because they are not about individuals but about groups. (b) They are Social in the sense because they are not about Economics. (c) They are systematic and structured. (d) All of the above Answer: (d) All of the above
47. Among the following who wrote famous book Vedic Authorities for Widow Marriage ? (a) M.G. Ranade (b) Jyotiba Phule (c) Annie Besant (d) Raja Rammohan Roy Answer: (a) M.G. Ranade
48. Who said Backward Hindus to the Tribal Communities among the following? (a) M.N. Srinivas (b) G.S. Ghurye (c) A.R. Desai (d) D.P. Mukherjee Answer: (b) G.S. Ghurye
Read the given passage and answer question nos 49, 50 and 51. Tribe is a modern term for Communities that are very old, the oldest inhabitants of the subcontinent. Tribes in India have generally been defined in terms of what they were not. Tribes were communities that did not practice a religion with a written text, did not have a state or political form of the normal kind, did not have sharp class division, and most importantly, they did not have caste and were neither hindus nor peasants. The term was introduced in the colonial era. In terms of positive characteristics, tribes have been classified according to their permanent and acquired traits. 49. If we look at the share of tribals in the state population, then the North Eastern States have the highest concentration with all states except__having concentration of more than 30%. (a) Nagaland (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam (d) Arunachal Pradesh Answer: (c) Assam
50. Which of the following is not a Physical racial criterion for defining the tribes in India? (a) Austric (b) Aryan (c) Dravidian (d) Negrito Answer: (a) Austric
51. According to Census Report 2011, it is _____of the population of India, or about 104 million tribal persons in the country. (a) 8.2% (b) 8.6% (c) 11% (d) 15% Answer: (b) 8.6%
Read the following passage and answer Q. No. 52, 53, 54: What is the matter dear? She said affectionately “I feel somewhat awkward” I said in a rather apologising tone “as being a pardanashin woman I am not accustomed to walking about unveiled” “You need not be afraid of coming across a man here. This is lady land, free from sin and harm.” I became very curious to know where the men were. I met more than a hundred women while walking there but not a single man. Where are the men? I asked her. In their proper places, where they ought to be. Pray let me know what you mean by their proper places.” Oh I see my mistake you cannot know our customs, as you were never here before. We shot our men indoors” “Just as we are kept in the zenana ? Exactly so.” “How funny!” I burst into a laugh. Sister Sara laughed too.
52. Identify the author of the passage. (a) Stree Purush Tulana (b) Sultana’s dream (c) Kabir Das on Cultural Diversity (d) Three Sermons on Human
53. The above passage is a (a) Novel (b) Poetry (c) Short story (d) Film
54. In which year the Sultana’s dream published ? (a) 1805 (b) 1905 (c) 1925 (d) 1945
Read the following passage and answer questions 55, 56 and 57. The notion of minority group is widely used in Sociology and is more than a merely numerical distinction – it usually involves some sense of relative disadvantage. Thus privileged minorities such as extremely wealthy people are not referred to as minorities. If they are, the term is qualified in some way as in the Phrase Privileged minority. When minority is used without qualification it implies a relatively small but also disadvantaged group. The Sociological sense of minority also implies that the members of the minority form a collectivity that is they have a strong sense of group solidarity, a feeling of togetherness.
55. _________________ such as extremely wealthy people are not referred to as minorities. (a) Religious minorities (b) Numerical minorities (c) Linguistic minorities (d) Privileged minorities Answer: (d) Privileged minorities
56. Statistical minorities are not minorities in the Sociological sense because they do not form a (a) Collectivity (b) Identity (c) Group (d) Society Answer: (a) Collectivity
57. When minority is used without qualification, it generally implies a relatively small but also _____ group. (a) advantaged (b) disadvantaged (c) privileged (d) diverse Answer: (b) disadvantaged
Read the following passage and answer Q. 58, 59 and 60. The demographic dividend results from an increase in the proportion of workers relative to non-workers in the population. In terms of age, the working population is roughly between 15 and 64 years of age. The working age group must support itself as well as those outside this age group (i.e. Children and elderly people) who are unable to work and are therefore dependents. Changes in this age structure due to demographic transition lower the dependency ratio, or the ratio of non-working age to working age population, thus creating the potential for generating growth.
58. What is the demographic dividend ? (a) More dependents exist in a country (b) Proportion of workers is more than that of non-workers. (c) Old Age population is more (d) None of them Answer: (b) Proportion of workers is more than that of non-workers.
59. Who are dependents ? (a) Children who are too young to earn (b) Adults who are unemployed (c) Aged population above 65 years (d) Proportion of children below 14 years and aged population (64 years and above) Answer: (c) Aged population above 65 years
60. What is Economically advantageous to our country? (a) High dependency ratio (b) Low death rate (c) Low falling dependency ratio (d) All of them Answer: (c) Low falling dependency ratio
The CBSE Class 12 Sociology answer key provided here is only for reference and is not final. Following the announcement of the results, the board is scheduled to release the official CBSE Class 10 Sociology answer key.
The answers to this paper have been carefully compiled. However, there may be some queries and answers related to specific concerns (for example: where more than one option is correct, no option is correct etc). Before coming to a final decision, students should discuss the matter with their CBSE school teachers.
The State Bank of India (SBI) has released its official notification for the recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) for 2024. The recruitment drive aims to fill 600 vacancies, including 586 regular positions and 14 backlog positions. Interested candidates can apply online through the official website, sbi.co.in, starting December 27, 2024.
This recruitment drive aims to fill 600 Probationary Officer (PO) positions, offering a great opportunity for aspirants looking to build a career in banking with one of India’s most prestigious financial institutions. The SBI PO posts will be filled through a rigorous three-phase selection process, including preliminary exams, main exams, and a final interview.
Candidates must meet the eligibility criteria, including a graduation degree and age requirements, to apply for the posts. The application process will be conducted online, with important dates for registration, examination, and document submission clearly outlined. Interested candidates are encouraged to check the official SBI website for detailed instructions and begin preparing for the upcoming selection rounds.
Key Dates
Application Start Date: December 27, 2024
Application Deadline: January 16, 2024
Preliminary Exam Call Letters Available: 3rd or 4th week of February 2025
Phase-I Preliminary Examination: March 8 and 15, 2025
Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: A graduate degree in any discipline from a recognized university or equivalent. Final-year students can apply provisionally, provided they present proof of graduation by April 30, 2025.
Age Limit: Applicants must be between 21 and 30 years old as of April 1, 2024 (born between April 2, 1994, and April 1, 2003, inclusive).
Selection Process
The selection process involves three phases:
Phase I: Preliminary Examination
An online objective test carrying 100 marks.
Phase II: Main Examination
Conducted online, it includes an objective test for 200 marks and a descriptive test for 50 marks.
Phase III: Psychometric Test, Group Exercise, and Personal Interview
A psychometric test will profile candidates’ personalities. Shortlisted candidates will participate in group exercises and interviews.
Application Fee
Rs. 750/- for Unreserved, EWS, and OBC candidates.
No fee for SC, ST, and PwBD candidates.
How to Apply?
Candidates must visit the official website, register, and complete the application process by the deadline. The call letters for the preliminary examination will be available in February 2025.
This recruitment provides an excellent opportunity for aspiring candidates to join one of India’s premier banking institutions. Applicants are advised to carefully review the eligibility and selection criteria before applying.
The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) has officially released the much-anticipated RRB Group D Notification for 2025, opening a staggering 32,438 vacancies within the Indian Railways. This large-scale recruitment drive offers a golden opportunity for candidates aspiring to secure a government job with substantial benefits.
The online registration process will begin on January 23, 2025, and will remain open until February 22, 2025. Aspiring candidates are encouraged to apply during this window to stand a chance to work with one of India’s largest and most respected organizations.
A prestigious career path
The recruitment is for Level 1 posts under the 7th Central Pay Commission (CPC) Pay Matrix, with an initial salary of Rs. 18,000 per month. Along with the competitive pay, selected candidates will also benefit from job security, travel allowances, and other perks. Indian Railways, known for its extensive and vital role in the nation’s transportation, promises employees an enriching career.
Candidates are advised to prepare thoroughly for the selection process, which will include a structured and transparent procedure, ensuring a fair chance for everyone interested in this prestigious opportunity.
Mixed reactions on X
As the notification went live, it sparked mixed reactions across social media platforms. On X, the hashtag #RailwayLevel1_1Lakh_VacancyDo trended as job seekers expressed both excitement and frustration. While many expressed gratitude for the large number of vacancies, some users took to X to voice concerns over the competitive nature of the recruitment process.
One user tweeted:
In response to the announcement of the 32,438 vacancies for RRB Group D posts, X users expressed their frustration over the limited number of openings, stating:
This sentiment is echoed by many, with users online questioning the adequacy of the number of positions available for the vast number of job seekers across the country.
X users voice concerns over timing of RRB Group D recruitment
Despite the differing opinions, the general sentiment remained positive, with most users acknowledging that the sheer number of vacancies increases the chances for a wider pool of candidates.
Looking ahead
Candidates eager to apply should stay updated with the official notifications and guidelines for the recruitment process. The release of the RRB Group D Notification 2025 marks an important milestone in the Indian Railways’ ongoing efforts to bolster its workforce and contribute to the country’s growth.
The recruitment process is expected to be highly competitive, and with only a month to apply, job seekers are urged to prepare diligently for this career-defining opportunity.
Stay tuned for more updates, and don’t forget to check out the RRB Group D notification screenshot shared in this post for detailed information.
The Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Calcutta has announced the Common Admission Test (CAT) 2024 results, bringing an end to the anticipation of nearly 2.93 lakh aspirants. Candidates can now access their scorecards by logging in with their registration number and password on the official website iimcat.ac.in.
This year, 14 candidates secured the prestigious 100 percentile. Notably, 13 of them come from engineering backgrounds, while only one is a non-engineer. Among the top performers, there is just one woman. Maharashtra emerged as a stronghold for top scorers, with the majority hailing from the state.
The provisional answer key was released on December 3, with candidates given until December 5 to raise objections. However, no changes were made to the provisional keys.
Experts have described CAT 2024 as relatively easier compared to the past two years, leading to expectations of higher cut-offs for admission.
Out of the total 2.93 lakh candidates who appeared for the test:
1.86 lakh were male candidates,
1.07 lakh were female candidates, and
5 candidates identified as transgender.
This diverse group of test-takers reflects the growing interest in management education across all demographics.
Candidates with valid CAT 2024 scores can now register for admission to postgraduate programmes at IIMs and other participating institutes. The final selection process will consider the CAT score, along with other criteria like academic performance, work experience, and performance in rounds such as the Written Ability Test (WAT), Group Discussion (GD), and Personal Interview (PI).
The CAT exam continues to serve as a gateway to the country’s top business schools, paving the way for aspirants to excel in diverse fields of management and entrepreneurship.
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