CBSE class 12th sociology term 1 board exam answer key, check here
Those who appeared for the examination want to know if their answer was correct or not. Well, if you are stressing about it then here is the answer key of the Sociology class 12th board exam.
Exams! The word which horrifies students the most. But what creates panic among students is discussing the question paper after coming out of the exam centre.
For the unversed, CBSE is conducting board exams term 1 for class 10th and class 12th students. Yesterday, CBSE conducted the first exam for class 12th which was Sociology from 11:30 am to 1 pm.
This year the format of board exams is different. The exams will be held in Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) format. Those who appeared for the examination want to know if their answer was correct or not. Well, if you are stressing about it then here is the answer key of the Sociology class 12th exam.
1. The ways in which individuals may become cut off from full involvement in the wider society is known as
(a) Social Inclusion
(b) Social Inequality
(c) Social Exclusion
(d) Social Stratification
Answer: (c) Social Exclusion
2. What is Sex-Ratio?
(a) Number of females per thousand males
(b) Number of males per thousand females
(c) Number of females per hundred males
(d) The study of population growth
Answer: (a) Number of females per thousand males
3. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of
(a) High death rate
(b) High birth rate
(c) High life expectancy
(d) More married couples
Answer: (b) High birth rate
4. The proportion of person in different age group relative to the total population is known as
(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Age Structure
(c) Occupation Structure
(d) Age Composition
*Answer: (d) Age Composition
5. Which programme became a significant part of Congress agenda? (a) Anti caste programme (b) Anti untouchability (c) Regionalism (d) Communalism Answer: (b) Anti untouchability
6. Matrilocal and patrilocal type of family is based on (a) Authority (b) Power (c) Inheritance (d) Residence Answer: (d) Residence
7. When did the National Population Policy came into effect ? (a) 2001 (b) 1947 (c) 1952 (d) 2005
Answer: *
8. The pyramid for 2026 shows the estimated future size of the relevant age groups based on the past rates of growth of each age group. Such estimates are called (a) Age pyramid (b) Demographic dividend (c) Projections (d) Rate of natural increase Answer: (c) Projections
9. The live birth per one thousand person in one year in a particular area is known as (a) Death rate (b) Birth rate (c) Fertility rate (d) Infant mortality rate *Answer: (b) Birth rate
10. The hierarchical ordering of caste is based on the distinction between (a) Role and status (b) Religion and rituals (c) Norms and authority (d) Purity and pollution Answer: (d) Purity and pollution
11. The English word Casta is actually a borrowing from the (a) Greek word (b) Indian word (c) Portuguese word (d) None of the above Answer:* (c) Portuguese word
12. Theoretically the caste system can be understood as the combination of the two sets of principles :
(a) Differences and Separation
(b) Wholism and Hierarchy
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Differences and Separation
13. Which of the following is not a permanent trait of tribes in India
(a) Region
(b) Ecological habitat
(c) Mode of livelihood
(d) Language
14. Who was the founder of Satyashodak Samaj having its primary emphasis on truth seeking ?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer: (b) Jyotiba Phule
15. The preconceived opinion or attitudes held by members of one group towards another is known as
(a) Stereotype
(b) Social inequalities
(c) Prejudices
(d) Discrimination
Answer: (c) Prejudices
16. The ______ or tribes were believed to be people of the forest whose distinctive habitat in the hill and forest areas shaped their Economic, Social and Political attributes.
(a) Nairs
(b) Jana
(c) Dikus
(d) Khasis
Answer: (b) Jana
17. A system in which categories of people in a society are ranked in a
hierarchy.
(a) Caste
(b) Prejudices
(c) Discrimination
(d) Social stratification
Answer: (d) Social stratification
18. When religious identity overrides everything else it leads to
(a) Secularism
(b) Communalism
(c) Nation-state
(d) Diversity
Answer: (b) Communalism
19. Community Identity is based on (a) Birth (c) Class (b) Status (d) Acquired Qualification Answer: (a) Birth
20. A policy that promote aimed or encourage all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms is known as (a) Integrationist (b) Assimilation (c) Community Identity (d) None of the above Answer: (b) Assimilation
21. A Nation is a peculiar sort of community that is easy to __but hard to define. (a) understand (b) approach (c) define (d) describe Answer: (d) describe
19. Community Identity is based on (a) Birth (c) Class (b) Status (d) Acquired Qualification Answer: (a) Birth
20. A policy that promote aimed or encourage all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms is known as (a) Integrationist (b) Assimilation (c) Community Identity (d) None of the above Answer: (b) Assimilation
21. A Nation is a peculiar sort of community that is easy to __but hard to define. (a) understand (b) approach (c) define (d) describe Answer: (d) describe
22. Indian people had a brief experience of which rule during the emergency enforced between June 1975 and Jan. 1977? (a) Democratic (b) Authoritarian rule (c) Colonial (d) None of these Answer: (b) Authoritarian rule
23. The unprecedented scale and spread of anti-muslim violence in Gujarat in 2002 took place under which government? (a) Congress (b) BJP (c) Democratic (d) Republican Answer: (b) BJP
24. Which of the following statement is not true about disability? (a) People are always born with disability (b) The disabled are rendered disable because the society renders them to do. (c) There is a correlation between disability and poverty. (d) Public perception of disability is based on cultural conception. Answer: (d) Public perception of disability is based on cultural conception.
25. Stereotypes fix whole group into single ________ group. (a) Homogeneous (b) Heterogeneous (c) Broad (d) Diverse Answer: (a) Homogeneous
26. 1. According to Malthusian theory, supply of food grains increase geometric progression. 2. The population grows in arithmetic progression. Which is true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None Answer: (d)
27. The rapid growth in _____ shows that town or city has been acting as a magnet for the rural population. (a) Modernization (b) Urbanization (c) Sanskritisation (d) Westernization Answer: (b) Urbanization
28. Which of the following helped to control epidemics in India over a period of time? (a) Improvement in communication (b) Decrease in death rate (c) Improvement in sanitation (d) Improvement in agricultural productivity Answer: (c) Improvement in sanitation
29. Who was the Chief Architect of the Indian Constitution? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) J.L. Nehru (d) None of the above Answer: (b) B.R. Ambedkar
30. Assertion (A): The inequalities in the literacy rate are especially important because they tend to reproduce inequality across generations. Reason (R) : Literacy rate also vary by social group. Historically disadvantaged communities like the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have a lower rate of literacy. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. Answer:* (a)
31. The watchwords One Caste One Religion One God for all men were given by (a) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule (b) Ayyankali (c) Savitri Bai Phule (d) Sri Narayana Guru Answer: (d) Sri Narayana Guru
32. What does Amartya Sen mean by failure of entitlements? (a) The inability of people to buy or otherwise to obtain food (b) Famines (c) Vulnerability to variations in rainfall (a) Lack of adequate means of transport and communication Answer: (a) The inability of people to buy or otherwise to obtain food
33. When the difference between Birth rate and the Death rate is zero we say that the population has stabilized or has reached the (a) stabilization level (b) highest level (c) replacement level (d) highest point Answer: (c) replacement level
34. The 93rd Amendment Act has introduced the reservation for the institution in higher education for which group? (a) Scheduled Castes (b) Scheduled Tribes (c) OBC (d) Disabled Group Answer: (c) OBC
35. Assertion (A): Matriarchy unlike Patriarchy has been a theoretical rather than an empirical concept. Reason (R): There is no Historical or Anthropological evidence of matriarchy i.e. societies where women exercises dominance. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is true but (R) is false. Answer: (a)
36. In regions where the non-Sanskritic castes were dominant, it was their influence that was stronger. Identify the most appropriate concept to refer this. (a) Sanskritisation (b) Westernisation (c) De-Sanskritisation (d) Modernisation Answer: (c) De-Sanskritisation
37. Out of the total tribal population how much percentage of the tribal population lives in middle India? (a) 85% (b) 11% (c) 58% (d) 74% Answer: (a) 85%
38. Which of the following is not a correct statement about the term Jati? (a) It is a local classification that varies from region to region. (b) It has a segmental organisation. (c) Membership of Jati involves rules about food and food sharing. (d) It is an all India aggregative classification. Answer: (d) It is an all India aggregative classification.
39. What are the laws that allow citizens of a particular state to simultaneously be the citizen of another state? (a) Cross border citizenship laws (b) Multiple citizenship laws (c) Dual citizenship (d) None Answer: (c) Dual citizenship
40. Assertion (A) : In Indian Nationalism, the dominant trend was marked by an inclusive and democratic vision. Reason (R) : It was democratic because it recognised Diversity and Plurality. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true and (R) is false. (d) (A) is false and (R) is true. Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
41. Which of the following does not stand for secularism? (a) Separation of State and Church (b) Not favouring a particular Religion. (c) Religion identity overriding everything else. (d) Progressive retreat of religion from public life. Answer:* (c) Religion identity overriding everything else.
42. Which of the following is the major issue that challenges the diversity of India ? (a) Regionalism (b) Communalism (c) Casteism (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these
43. Everyone has a motherland, a mother tongue, a family and a faith. This signifies an important feature of community identity, that is (a) Achieved (b) Conditional (c) Localised (d) Universal
44. Assertion (A): There is a close relationship between disability poverty. Reasoning (R): Malnutrition mothers weakened by frequent childbirth, inadequate immunisation programmes, accidents in overcrowded homes, all contribute to an incidence of disability among poor people that is higher (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is true and (R) is false. Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
45. Asset and Income is a form of which type of capital? (a) Social capital (b) Cultural capital (c) Economic capital (d) General capital Answer: (c) Economic capital
46. What is Social about Social Inequality? (a) They are Social because they are not about individuals but about groups. (b) They are Social in the sense because they are not about Economics. (c) They are systematic and structured. (d) All of the above Answer: (d) All of the above
47. Among the following who wrote famous book Vedic Authorities for Widow Marriage ? (a) M.G. Ranade (b) Jyotiba Phule (c) Annie Besant (d) Raja Rammohan Roy Answer: (a) M.G. Ranade
48. Who said Backward Hindus to the Tribal Communities among the following? (a) M.N. Srinivas (b) G.S. Ghurye (c) A.R. Desai (d) D.P. Mukherjee Answer: (b) G.S. Ghurye
Read the given passage and answer question nos 49, 50 and 51. Tribe is a modern term for Communities that are very old, the oldest inhabitants of the subcontinent. Tribes in India have generally been defined in terms of what they were not. Tribes were communities that did not practice a religion with a written text, did not have a state or political form of the normal kind, did not have sharp class division, and most importantly, they did not have caste and were neither hindus nor peasants. The term was introduced in the colonial era. In terms of positive characteristics, tribes have been classified according to their permanent and acquired traits. 49. If we look at the share of tribals in the state population, then the North Eastern States have the highest concentration with all states except__having concentration of more than 30%. (a) Nagaland (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam (d) Arunachal Pradesh Answer: (c) Assam
50. Which of the following is not a Physical racial criterion for defining the tribes in India? (a) Austric (b) Aryan (c) Dravidian (d) Negrito Answer: (a) Austric
51. According to Census Report 2011, it is _____of the population of India, or about 104 million tribal persons in the country. (a) 8.2% (b) 8.6% (c) 11% (d) 15% Answer: (b) 8.6%
Read the following passage and answer Q. No. 52, 53, 54: What is the matter dear? She said affectionately “I feel somewhat awkward” I said in a rather apologising tone “as being a pardanashin woman I am not accustomed to walking about unveiled” “You need not be afraid of coming across a man here. This is lady land, free from sin and harm.” I became very curious to know where the men were. I met more than a hundred women while walking there but not a single man. Where are the men? I asked her. In their proper places, where they ought to be. Pray let me know what you mean by their proper places.” Oh I see my mistake you cannot know our customs, as you were never here before. We shot our men indoors” “Just as we are kept in the zenana ? Exactly so.” “How funny!” I burst into a laugh. Sister Sara laughed too.
52. Identify the author of the passage. (a) Stree Purush Tulana (b) Sultana’s dream (c) Kabir Das on Cultural Diversity (d) Three Sermons on Human
53. The above passage is a (a) Novel (b) Poetry (c) Short story (d) Film
54. In which year the Sultana’s dream published ? (a) 1805 (b) 1905 (c) 1925 (d) 1945
Read the following passage and answer questions 55, 56 and 57. The notion of minority group is widely used in Sociology and is more than a merely numerical distinction – it usually involves some sense of relative disadvantage. Thus privileged minorities such as extremely wealthy people are not referred to as minorities. If they are, the term is qualified in some way as in the Phrase Privileged minority. When minority is used without qualification it implies a relatively small but also disadvantaged group. The Sociological sense of minority also implies that the members of the minority form a collectivity that is they have a strong sense of group solidarity, a feeling of togetherness.
55. _________________ such as extremely wealthy people are not referred to as minorities. (a) Religious minorities (b) Numerical minorities (c) Linguistic minorities (d) Privileged minorities Answer: (d) Privileged minorities
56. Statistical minorities are not minorities in the Sociological sense because they do not form a (a) Collectivity (b) Identity (c) Group (d) Society Answer: (a) Collectivity
57. When minority is used without qualification, it generally implies a relatively small but also _____ group. (a) advantaged (b) disadvantaged (c) privileged (d) diverse Answer: (b) disadvantaged
Read the following passage and answer Q. 58, 59 and 60. The demographic dividend results from an increase in the proportion of workers relative to non-workers in the population. In terms of age, the working population is roughly between 15 and 64 years of age. The working age group must support itself as well as those outside this age group (i.e. Children and elderly people) who are unable to work and are therefore dependents. Changes in this age structure due to demographic transition lower the dependency ratio, or the ratio of non-working age to working age population, thus creating the potential for generating growth.
58. What is the demographic dividend ? (a) More dependents exist in a country (b) Proportion of workers is more than that of non-workers. (c) Old Age population is more (d) None of them Answer: (b) Proportion of workers is more than that of non-workers.
59. Who are dependents ? (a) Children who are too young to earn (b) Adults who are unemployed (c) Aged population above 65 years (d) Proportion of children below 14 years and aged population (64 years and above) Answer: (c) Aged population above 65 years
60. What is Economically advantageous to our country? (a) High dependency ratio (b) Low death rate (c) Low falling dependency ratio (d) All of them Answer: (c) Low falling dependency ratio
The CBSE Class 12 Sociology answer key provided here is only for reference and is not final. Following the announcement of the results, the board is scheduled to release the official CBSE Class 10 Sociology answer key.
The answers to this paper have been carefully compiled. However, there may be some queries and answers related to specific concerns (for example: where more than one option is correct, no option is correct etc). Before coming to a final decision, students should discuss the matter with their CBSE school teachers.
Amazon is preparing to lay off around 30,000 corporate employees this week, marking its biggest job reduction since late 2022, when it eliminated about 27,000 positions. The move is part of CEO Andy Jassy’s ongoing effort to streamline operations and counter overhiring during the pandemic-driven boom.
Largest corporate layoff since 2022
The planned layoffs will affect nearly 10% of Amazon’s corporate workforce — roughly 350,000 employees — though it represents a small portion of the company’s overall 1.55 million-strong staff. The job cuts are expected across multiple departments, including human resources (People Experience and Technology), operations, devices and services, and Amazon Web Services (AWS).
Managers in affected teams were trained on Monday to handle the layoff process before email notifications began rolling out Tuesday morning.
Efficiency push and AI automation
The restructuring comes as Jassy pushes to reduce “bureaucracy” and simplify management layers. Amazon has even introduced an anonymous complaint line to flag inefficiencies, reportedly leading to over 450 process changes.
The company’s increased adoption of artificial intelligence tools has accelerated the shift. Jassy previously said AI automation would eliminate repetitive tasks, potentially reducing headcount. Analysts believe Amazon is realizing significant productivity gains through these technologies, supporting its decision to trim staff.
Pressure on AWS and holiday hiring plans
While AWS remains Amazon’s largest profit driver, its recent growth has lagged behind competitors. AWS reported $30.9 billion in second-quarter sales — up 17.5% — compared to 39% for Microsoft Azure and 32% for Google Cloud. Estimates indicate AWS revenue rose to $32 billion in the third quarter, marking a slight slowdown.
Despite the layoffs, Amazon plans to hire 250,000 seasonal workers ahead of the holiday shopping season, maintaining the same level as the previous two years.
Stock reaction and internal reshuffling
Amazon shares rose 1.2% to $226.97 on Monday, just days ahead of its third-quarter earnings announcement. The company also reorganized a segment of its human resources division focused on diversity initiatives, promoting several employees into new roles.
CBSE releases tentative datesheets for Class 10, 12 board exams 2026
CBSE has released the tentative schedule for Class 10 and 12 board exams 2026. The exams will run from February 17 to July 15, 2026, for over 45 lakh students across India and 26 countries.
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has announced the tentative datesheets for the Class 10 and Class 12 board examinations for the academic year 2025-26. According to the notification, the exams will be conducted between February 17 and July 15, 2026.
CBSE said that around 45 lakh students are expected to appear in the board examinations, covering 204 subjects across India and 26 countries abroad.
Exams To Be Conducted
The schedule covers multiple categories of examinations, including:
Main Examinations for Classes 10 and 12
Examinations for Sports Students (Class 12)
Second Board Examinations (Class 10)
Supplementary Examinations (Class 12)
Along with the written tests, the board will also coordinate practical exams, evaluation, and post-result processes to ensure timely completion and declaration of results.
Evaluation Timeline
CBSE has outlined a structured plan for evaluation. The checking of answer sheets will begin about 10 days after each subject’s exam and is expected to be completed within 12 days.
For example, if the Class 12 Physics exam is held on February 20, 2026, the evaluation process will start on March 3 and conclude by March 15.
Tentative Datesheets
The board clarified that these date sheets are tentative. The final versions will be released after schools submit the final list of candidates appearing for the examinations.
The CBSE has urged schools and students to treat these dates as indicative and to continue their preparations in accordance with the tentative schedule.
SBI clerk recruitment 2025: Registration begins for 6,589 vacancies, apply now
State Bank of India has initiated the recruitment for 6,589 clerk posts. Online application is now open for eligible candidates with exams scheduled for September and November 2025.
The State Bank of India (SBI) has officially started the registration process for SBI Clerk Recruitment 2025, inviting applications for 6,589 Junior Associate (Clerk) posts. The online application window opened on August 6, 2025, and interested candidates can apply through the official SBI website.
Of the total vacancies, 5,180 are regular and 1,409 are backlog vacancies. The category-wise breakdown includes 2,255 for General, 788 for SC, 450 for ST, 1,179 for OBC, and 508 for EWS candidates.
Eligibility criteria
Educational Qualification: Applicants must hold a graduation degree in any discipline from a recognised university. Final-year students are also eligible, provided they complete their degree by December 31, 2025.
Age Limit: Candidates should be between 20 to 28 years as of April 1, 2025 (born between April 2, 1997 and April 1, 2005). Age relaxation is applicable as per government rules.
Selection process
The recruitment process involves three stages:
Preliminary Examination: A 100-mark online test to screen candidates.
Main Examination: Comprises 190 questions, carrying 200 marks, with a duration of 2 hours and 40 minutes.
Language Proficiency Test: Required for those who haven’t studied the local language in Class 10 or 12.
Importantly, only the marks scored in the Main Exam will determine the final merit list, subject to document verification and the language test.
Exam schedule
Preliminary Exam (Tier 1): September 2025
Main Exam (Tier 2): November 2025
Application fee
General/OBC/EWS: ₹750
SC/ST/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen: Exempted from fee
Salary and benefits
Selected candidates will receive a monthly salary ranging from ₹24,050 to ₹64,480 as per the SBI pay scale.
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