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Union Cabinet clears Bill for creating special DNA profile databanks

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Union Cabinet clears Bill for creating special DNA profile databanks

The Union Cabinet has cleared the contentious DNA Technology (Use and Application) regulation bill 2018 that seeks to create DNA data banks across India to store profiles for forensic-criminal investigations.

The proposed Bill also provides for a jail term of up to three years to those who leak the information stored in such facilities.

“The primary intended purpose for enactment of “The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill” is for expanding the application of DNA-based forensic technologies to support and strengthen the justice delivery system of the country,” said the government statement on the Cabinet decision.

This is the latest version of a Bill that originated as a DNA “profiling” Bill, framed by the Department of Biotechnology, reported The Hindu. The aim of that draft legislation was to set up an institutional mechanism to collect and deploy DNA technologies to identify persons based on samples collected from crime scenes or for identifying missing persons.

However there was opposition, in that some activists argued that the manner in which DNA information was to be collected and the way they were to be stored by forensic laboratories constituted a violation of privacy.

A senior official familiar with the Bill said that several clauses of the Bill were tightened to make it stronger and immune to data abuse.

“This doesn’t aim to create a database of DNA profiles…The databanks can only store information related to criminal investigations and the DNA details of suspects will be deleted,” said Renu Swarup, Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, according to The Hindu.

The Bill creates a DNA Profiling Board that would be the final authority that would authorise the creation of State-level DNA databanks, approve the methods of collection and analysis of DNA-technologies.

The bill’s provision would enable cross-matching between persons who have been reported missing and unidentified dead bodies found in various parts of the country on the other.

It would also help to establish the identity of victims in mass disasters, says a press note issued by the Cabinet.

The most important application of the legislation would be in the criminal justice system as it would allow the government to maintain a DNA database for the criminals convicted of heinous crimes.

Over a period of time, the database is expected to lead to better justice delivery and improve conviction rate, which currently stands at 30%. In addition, the bill provides for mandatory accreditation and regulation of DNA laboratories, preventing non-accredited laboratories to test DNA samples.

The statement issued by the government said forensic DNA profiling is of proven value in solving cases involving offences that are categorized as affecting the human body (such as murder, rape, human trafficking, or grievous hurt), and those against property (including theft, burglary, and dacoity).

The aggregate incidence of such crimes in the country, as per the statistics of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for 2016, is in excess of 3 lakhs per year. Of these, only a very small proportion is being subjected to DNA testing at present, said the statement.

It is expected that the expanded use of this technology in these categories of cases would result not only in speedier justice delivery but also in increased conviction rates, which at present is only around 30%, as per the NCRB Statistics for 2016.

The Bill will be introduced in Parliament during the Monsoon Session beginning July 18, said media reports quoting government sources.

The bill, based on the one prepared by the Law Commission recently, says that national and regional DNA data banks will be set up for maintaining a national database for identification of victims, suspects in cases, undertrials, missing persons and unidentified human remains.

Those leaking the DNA profile information to people or entities who are not entitled to have it, will be punished with a jail term of up to three years and a fine of up to Rs. 1 lakh. Similar punishment has also been provided for those who seek the information on DNA profiles illegally.

Minister for Science Dr Harsh Vardhan, tweeting about the Cabinet decision, said: “Cabinet approved a bill for use & regulation of #DNATechnology. It seeks appln of DNA based #ForensicTechnologies to support & strengthen justice delivery system, devmt of uniform code of practices in all labs & scientific upgradation & streamlining of #DNA_Testing. @DBTIndia”

The Congress criticized it as an assault on fundamental right to privacy. Congress spokesperson Manish Tewari tweeted: “DNA Technology(Use and Application) Regulation bill 2018 cleared by Union Cabinet yesterday is a direct assault on  fundamental right to privacy. Seeks to legitimise DNA profiling in name of criminal investigations. It is bio-technology version of NATGRID. Needs to be opposed”

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Case registered against Mamata Banerjee over controversial 2025 religion remark

A formal police case has been registered against Trinamool Congress supremo Mamata Banerjee in Siliguri, West Bengal. The complaint alleges that her 2025 “Ganda Dharm” remark targeted Hinduism and hurt the religious sentiments of the community.

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Mamata Banerjee

A formal police complaint has been lodged against Trinamool Congress (TMC) chief Mamata Banerjee in West Bengal’s Siliguri. The legal action stems from an alleged derogatory remark regarding Hinduism made during an Eid congregation in Kolkata in 2025.

The case was registered following a complaint filed by a local lawyer, Rinki Chatterjee, who alleged that the former Chief Minister’s comments deeply hurt the religious sentiments of Hindus globally.

Legal charges and complaint details

The police have invoked multiple sections under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) against Banerjee, including Section 351(1) for criminal intimidation, Section 352 for intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace, and Section 353 for promoting feelings of enmity, hatred, or ill will between different communities.

According to the complaint, the controversy traces back to an Eid event organized on Kolkata’s iconic Red Road in 2025. While delivering a speech targeting the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Banerjee purportedly referred to the version of Hinduism championed by the political rival as “Ganda Dharm” (filthy religion).

Chatterjee stated in her complaint that labeling Sanatan Dharma in such a manner at a religious gathering was “absolutely unacceptable”. The complainant also pointed to other instances where senior TMC leaders allegedly targeted Hinduism, adding that Banerjee made indirect threats to the Hindu community during the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election campaign to influence voters through intimidation.

Political responses to the FIR

The reported statements had previously drawn sharp criticism from the state BJP leadership last year, including strong objections from current Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari. However, this FIR represents the first formal legal action taken regarding the speech.

When approached for a response, Atri Sharma, a lawyer and general secretary of the TMC’s Darjeeling unit, declined to comment officially as a party spokesperson. However, he noted that many within the party internal circles found the remarks inappropriate at the time they were spoken. Sharma acknowledged that holding a high public office required restraint and affirmed that every individual holds the moral right to pursue legal remedies.

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Enforcement Directorate raids former Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan’s residence in money laundering probe

The Enforcement Directorate on Wednesday carried out searches at the Thiruvananthapuram residence of former Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and 11 other locations in connection with a money-laundering probe registered in 2024.

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The Enforcement Directorate on Wednesday conducted extensive searches at the Thiruvananthapuram residence of former Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. The action comes as part of an ongoing money-laundering investigation, with the central probe agency executing simultaneous raids at 12 separate locations across the state under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

Broad Crackdown in Financial Probe

The central agency’s operations focused significantly on Vijayan’s rented residence in the state capital, alongside eleven other locations, including premises in Kochi, Kozhikode, Kannur, and Bengaluru. This major enforcement action was initiated shortly after the Kerala High Court dismissed a petition on Tuesday, which had been filed by Cochin Minerals And Rutile Ltd (CMRL) seeking to quash the ongoing ED proceedings.

The roots of the financial investigation trace back to a PMLA case registered in 2024. The core allegation involves an estimated illegal payment of ₹1.72 crore made between 2017 and 2019 by a private entity, Cochin Minerals And Rutile Ltd (CMRL), to Exalogic Solutions, an IT firm owned by Vijayan’s daughter, T Veena.

According to investigators, the financial transactions took place despite the IT firm allegedly rendering no services to the private company. Apart from the financial probe agency’s scrutiny, the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is also independently conducting an inquiry into the wider financial transactions of the matter.

Political Developments

The searches also covered locations linked to other political and executive figures associated with the matter, including premises connected to senior CMRL executives. While the ruling party has previously described the investigations as politically motivated, the central agency has intensified its probe following the high court’s refusal to grant interim relief to the private firm. The case has sparked intense political debate, with opposition parties using the findings to allege financial irregularities, while local party leaders maintain that the transactions were part of a legitimate business arrangement.

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IPL 2026 Qualifier 1: Rajat Patidar, Virat Kohli shatter playoff records as RCB crush GT to reach final

Defending champions Royal Challengers Bengaluru advanced to their second consecutive IPL final after a historic 92-run demolition of Gujarat Titans in Qualifier 1, powered by Rajat Patidar’s breathtaking 93*

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Defending champions Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB) created history in the Indian Premier League (IPL) 2026 Qualifier 1 against Gujarat Titans (GT), sealing their spot in a second consecutive final with a clinical 92-run victory on Tuesday.

Riding on captain Rajat Patidar’s blistering, unbeaten 93 off just 33 balls, Bengaluru piled up a colossal 254 for 5 in their 20 overs after being asked to bat first at the scenic Dharamsala stadium. The monumental total surpassed the previous playoff benchmark of 233 for 3, set by GT against Mumbai Indians in 2023, making it the highest-ever score in IPL playoff history. In response, a ruthless RCB bowling assault dismantled the Gujarat Titans batting line-up, bowling them out for 162 in 19.3 overs.

Patidar blitzkrieg anchors historic RCB innings

After GT skipper Shubman Gill won the toss and opted to field, RCB’s top order asserted early dominance by racing to 76 for 1 within the powerplay. Venkatesh Iyer provided a quickfire 19 off seven balls, while Devdutt Padikkal struck 30 off 19 deliveries to set a brisk tempo.

The foundation allowed Virat Kohli to maintain the middle-order momentum with a fluent 43 off 25 balls. With this knock, Kohli carved out another historic milestone, becoming the first player in IPL history to accumulate over 600 runs in four consecutive seasons. Jason Holder briefly checked RCB’s charge by removing both Kohli and Padikkal in the 10th over to leave them at 99 for 3.

However, skipper Rajat Patidar took complete control from there on. Surviving two dropped catches early on, Patidar launched a brutal counter-attack, smashing five fours and nine towering sixes at an astonishing strike rate of 281.81. He combined forces with Krunal Pandya, who played a crucial anchoring role with 43 off 28 balls, putting together a blistering 90-run partnership. Patidar turned particularly merciless in the death overs, hammering a massive over from Kulwant Khejroliya as RCB finished their death overs on an absolute high.

Gujarat Titans collapse under scoreboard pressure

Faced with a steep mountain to climb, the Gujarat Titans chase imploded right from the start, losing five wickets inside the powerplay against a lethal pace battery. Openers Sai Sudharsan and skipper Shubman Gill were dismissed in the third and fourth overs respectively.

Sudharsan, the tournament’s leading run-scorer, suffered a bizarre and unfortunate dismissal when his bat slipped during a cut shot, knocking back his own stumps to be out hit-wicket off Jacob Duffy. Gill followed shortly after, cleaned up by an excellent delivery from Bhuvneshwar Kumar.

Jos Buttler offered a brief, aggressive resistance by hitting four boundaries and two sixes in a quick 29, but Australian pacer Josh Hazlewood exacted quick revenge by clean-bowling him in the fifth over. From a precarious position, the Titans slipped further as Jacob Duffy tore through the middle order, dismissing Washington Sundar and Rashid Khan.

Rahul Tewatia was the lone warrior for the Titans, waging a solitary battle to smash a fighting 68. His aggressive hitting brought up the team’s hundred in the 13th over and dragged the side past the 150-mark. However, the target proved far too distant. Krunal Pandya claimed the final wicket in the final over, dismissing GT’s tailender Mohammed Siraj—who was caught by Tim David—to bundle out GT for 162, securing the second-largest victory margin in IPL playoff history for RCB.

While RCB marches straight into the grand finale with ultimate momentum, Gujarat Titans remain alive in the tournament. They will get another opportunity to reach the final when they play the winner of the Eliminator clash between Sunrisers Hyderabad and Rajasthan Royals in Qualifier 2.

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