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CBSE Class 12 Term 1 English Core Paper Answer Key 2021 released, check here for paper analysis and direct link for PDF

must know that the answer key is tentative. The answer key provided by the experts will be only for a specific set. And for CBSE Class 12 Term 1 English Core Paper answer key we have opted QP code 001/2/4 for subject code 301.

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The CBSE board on December 3 conducted the exam of class 12 term 1 English core paper. After the exam was completed, experts have shared their answer key for the students to analyze their results. Students who appeared for the CBSE class 12 English core paper on Friday, December 3, said that the paper was a bit difficult but they tried to solve it as much as they could.

English experts have released their version of the answer key, but students must know that the answer key is tentative. The answer key provided by the experts will be only for a specific set. And for CBSE Class 12 Term 1 English Core Paper answer key we have opted QP code 001/2/4 for subject code 301.

1. What’s the one thing that you associate with your college days ? For me, it was consuming copious amounts of chai. A cup of tea was a panacea to all troubles and the companion to all joys. In this exclusive interview, we caught up with 65-year-old Deepak Garg owner of Ganga Dhaba, a spot that every officer from National Academy of

Administration has visited multiple times.

2. Deepak begins, “My family has been here for almost 90 years. It was my grandfather who first started working here as the supplier to the hotel that existed then. “In 1964, when Deepak was all of eight, he lost his father and the responsibility of raising four children fell on his mother.

3. “Our growing up years were a huge struggle. My mother used to teach home science at a local Balwadi school, and which was also where my siblings and I studied,” he says. In 1978, Deepak says that he started food joint that he named Om Chinese restaurant. “In those days, there was a huge liking for Chinese food and hence the name and the choice of cuisine,” he says.

4. For almost 17 years, things continued and then Deepak got a Public Call Office (PCO) installed for the Officer Trainees. The business did so well that soon he had installed more than ten telephones, with separate cabins, to allow them some privacy while they made and received their calls.

5. “The OTs who would talk on the PCO from here would always refer to the place as “Ganga Dhaba’. It was because this place is so close to the Ganga hostel inside the academy, that slowly the name changed and it became Ganga Dhaba. Since it was the OTs that gave us our identity, we decided to change the name and call it Ganga Dhaba,” he says.

6. There have been instances when Deepak and his family members have learnt dishes from the OTs. He says, “So many dishes on our menu today are because some officer came in and decided to teach us how to make them.”

Read Also: SSC CGL Tier 1 Result 2020 out today: Here’s how to download answer key, marks

7. We have seen two generations of officers, served the parents, who now as the parents come back to drop their children at the academy and tell us to take care of them. What more can we ask for? While the money we make is not great, the respect and the love we have accumulated over the years is what keeps us going.” says Deepak, proudly, (400 words)

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any eight out of the ten questions by choosing the correct options :

1. What, according to the author, gave him solace during his bad times

in his college days?

(a) Friends

(b) Family

(c) Tea

(d) Telephone
Answer 1: (c) Tea

2. Read the following statements :

(i) Mr. Deepak named his food joint Om Chinese.

(ii) Chinese food was then popular among people.

(a) (ii) is the cause for (i),

(b) (i) is the cause for (ii).

(c) (i) is true and (ii) is false.

(d) (i) is false and (ii) is true.
Answer 2: (a) (ii) is the cause for (i)

3. ‘Soon he had installed ten telephones.’ In the light of the above statement select the option that lists the right inference.

(a) He was kind enough to do social service for the OTV

(b) He was successful and flourishing in his business.

(c) He expanded his canteen to accommodate more people.

(d) He switched his business from canteen to telephone booths.
Answer 3: (b) He was successful and flourishing in his business.

4. The gesture of changing the name of the food joint to ‘Ganga Dhaba’ speaks of Deepak’s
(a) wavering mind
(b) tendency to change with times 
(c) respect and tribute to OTS
(d) dogmatic approach
Answer: (c) respect and tribute to OTS

5. …… his family members learnt dishes from OTs.” Choose the option that lists the inference with reference to the above statement 
(a) OTs were equally good connoisseurs of food. 
(b) his family was mediocre in cooking, 
(c) his family had close association and good rapport with OTs. 
(d) his family wanted to learn more recipes to expand their business.

Answer 5: (c) 

6. As per paragraph 7, select the option that sums up the personality of Deepak Garg 
(a) He is a struggler, lacks business acumen to make his business profitable. 
(b) He is a very social and friendly person and enjoys a good relationship with OTs.
(c) A responsible son who shared the burden of his family 
(d) A person who upholds dignity and esteem in life, not materialistic

Answer 6: (d)

7. ….OT’s that gave us our identity.” He means to say
(a) His canteen was in the vicinity of OT’s hostel. 
(b) The canteen was named after the OTs hostel 
(c) It was OTs who helped his family to learn new recipes. 
(d) It was OTs who patronized his canteen business.

Answer 7: (d) 

8. Choose the option that aptly defines Deepak Garg’s life story “from struggling childhood days to becoming a successful businessman”, 
(a) Where there is a will, there is a way. 
(b) Make Ray while the Sun shines 
(c) A good fire make a good cook. 
(d) Despair gives courage to a coward.

Answer 8: (a) 

9. …… many dishes on our menu today are because some officer came in and decided to teach us.” Choose the option that rightly reflects the tone of the speaker. 
(a) Ignorance
(b) Humility 
(c) Pride
(d) Regret

Answer 9: (b) 

10. …… tell us to take care of them.” Choose the option that lists the appropriate reason behind the statement.
(a) Parents make a request as they stay away from their children. 
(b) Deepak Garg can take care as he stays close to the hostel 
(c) Parents trust and respect Deepak Garg’s hospitality 
(d) Parents pay Deepak Garg for the facilities he offers.

Answer 10: (c) 

II. Read the passage given below:
1. Air pollution is a major threat to human health. The United Nations Environment Programme has estimated that, globally, 1.1 billion people breathe in unhealthy air. The World Health Organization (WHO) has estimated that urban air pollution is responsible for approximately 800,000 deaths and 4.6 million people lose their lives every year around the globe. 
2. Traffic and transportation problems, inadequate drainage facilities, lack of open spaces, carbon emission, and the accumulation of waste aggravate the problem. Air pollution is associated with increased risk of Acute respiratory infections (ARI), the principal cause of infant and child mortality in developing countries.
3. Urban air quality in most mega cities has been found to be critical and Kolkata is no exception to this. An analysis of ambient air quality in Kolkata was done by applying the Exceedance Factor (EF) method, where the presence of listed pollutants’ (RPM, SPM, NO, and SO2) annual average concentration are classified into four different categories; namely critical, high, moderate, and low pollution. Out of a total of 17 ambient air quality monitoring stations operating in Kolkata, five fall under the critical category, and the remaining 12 locations fall under the high category of NO2 concentration, while for RPM, four record critical, and 13 come under the high pollution category. The causes of high concentration of pollutants in the form of NO, and RPM have been identified in earlier studies as vehicular emission (51.4%), followed by industrial sources (24.5%) and dust particles (21.1%).

4. Later, a health assessment was undertaken with a structured questionnaire at some nearby dispensaries which fall under areas with different ambient air pollution levels. Three dispensaries have been surveyed with 100 participants. It shows that respondents with respiratory diseases (85.1%) have outnumbered waterborne diseases (14.9%) and include acute respiratory infections. (ARI) (60%), chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD) (7.8%), upper tract respiratory infection (UTRD) (1.2%), Influenza (12.7%), and acid-fast bacillus (AFB) (3.4%). 

5. To live a healthy life and have better well-being, practising pollution averting activities in one’s day-to-day activities is needed. These pollution averting practices can only be possible when awareness among the masses is generated that the air they breathe outdoors is not found to be safe.
Pollution in India

jagran josh

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any six out of the eight questions by choosing the correct options : 
11. Select the option that highlights the main idea of the passage.
(a) To educate people about the threat of air pollution 
(b) To warn people of the threat of air pollution and educate them about the safety measures. 
(c) To discuss the status of pollution in Kolkata and share the details of the study. 
(d) To educate people on the Exceedance Factor method and share the results of the study.

Answer 11: (a)

12. Select the option that displays the correct ’cause and effect’ relationship. 
(a) Cause: Effect 
Traffic and transportation problem: 4.6 million deaths 
(b) Cause: Effect 
Lack of open spaces: Mega cities
(c)  Cause: Effect 
Air pollution: Respiratory diseases
(d)  Cause: Effect 
Air quality monitoring stations: Effect Emission of NO2

Answer 12: (c)

13. Read the following statements :
(i) Air pollution kills 4.6 million people every year in India. 
(ii) Air pollution is causing health hazards to more people than
water pollution. 
(a) (i) is true and (ii) is false. 
(b) (i) is false and (ii) is true.
(c) (i) is true and is responsible for (ii). 
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

Answer 13: (c)

14. The author’s opinion on the development of Mega cities is
(a) Cities face transportation problems due to heavy traffic. 
(b) Urbanization leads to deterioration of air quality. 
(c) Mega cities are the right spots to study air pollution. 
(d) Sitios face the problem of congestion.

Answer 14: (b)

15. Select the option that lists the author’s recommendation to the people. 
i He wants people to be aware that air pollution is a major threat. 
ii. He urges people not to live in mega cities. 
iii. He advises people to follow pollution averting activities seriously 
iv. He wants people to reduce vehicular emissions. 
(a) i & ii
(b) ii & iii 
(c) i & iii
(d) iii & iv 

Answer 15: (c)

16. Select the option that displays the true statement as per fig. 1.
(a) Dust and power plants are the causes for maximum pollution 
(b) Pollution caused by transport is much more than the pollution caused by industries. 
(c) The use of diesel generator is responsible for more than 50% of air pollution 
(d) Dust stands fourth in the list that causes air pollution.

Answer 16: (b)
For the visually impaired candidates 
16. As per paragraph 3, select the option that holds true. 
(a) Only urban air pollution is responsible for deteriorating human health condition 
(b) The higher intensity of pollutants in the form of NO, and RPM is mainly due to vehicular emissions. 
(c) Dust particles in air are the major contributors of pollution 
(d) Traffic and transport plays a negligible role in increasing pollution

For visually impaired: 16 (b)

17. Read the following statement :
(i) Air quality in Kolkata is less than critical 
(ii) 12 locations were selected for measuring ambient air quality. 
(iii) Most of the mega cities are suffering from the problem of poor air quality 
(a) (i) is true and (ii) and (iii) are false. 
(b) (i) and (ii) are true and (iii) is false. 
(c) (i) and (iii) are true and (ii) is false. 
(d) (i) and (ii) are false and (iii) is true.
Answer 17: d

18. “accumulation of waste aggravates the problem.”
Select the option that best describes the problem with reference to the above statement, 
(a) Increase in pollution leads to huge accumulation of waste. 
(b) Lack of space for waste disposal. 
(c) More developments lead to more waste. 
(d) Lack of sustainable and effective waste management.
Answer 18: c

SECTION-B
(Writing & Skills) 
19. Mrs. Sujatha wants to rent out the first floor of her house. She decides to draft an  advertisement to be published in a national daily Choose the correct option under which heading she can publish her advertisement. 
(a) For Sale
(b) Accommodation Wanted 
(c) Situation Vacant 
(d) To let 

Answer 19: d

20. Select the option that lists the important information that Sujata needs to include in her advertisement. 
i Site of the house ii. People in the neighbourhood 
iii. Location iv. Amenities and facilities 
v. Distance from Metro Rail Station
vi. Contact address
(a) i, iii, v & vi
(b) i, ii, iv & vi
(c) ii, iii, v & vi
(d) i, ii, iv & v
Answer 20: b

Vineeta is the Head girl of Gandhi Memorial School, Nagpur. She is asked to draft a notice informing students of class XII about a workshop on stress management,

21. Select the option that best justifies the title for the notice.
(a) Workshop for class XII students
(b) How to manage stress 
(c) Stress management workshop for class XII students 
(d) Attention class XII students

Answer 21: (c)

22. Select the appropriate option that lists important details that Vineeta should include in her notice.
(a) Time to reach the venue, dress code for students, date, name of the resource persona
(b) Date, venue, time, name of the resource person
(c) Date, duration, renson to attend, name of the resource person
(d) Date, venue, time, dress code for students
Answer 22: (a)

23. Help Vineeta by choosing the right option to complete the statement in her notice. 
The workshop will be ____ and will teach some ____ to effectively manage stress. 
(a) conducted, time
(b) effective, tips 
(c) interesting, students 
(d) beneficial techniques
Answer 23: (d)

IV. Answer any six of the seven questions given below with reference to the
context
Rashmi is President of her school Library Club. She decides to write an article on the need to develop the habit of reading as she strongly feels it is fading among the present day students.

24. Select the option that lists an appropriate title for Rashmi’s article.
(a) Develop reading habit to be successful 
(b) Why is reading important? 
(c) Reading skill – A requisite to be a good communicator 
(d) Reading is the best exercise for mind

Answer 24: b

25. Help Rashmi complete her ideas in the following sentence by choosing the right option. Every book opens up new _____ of thoughts for the reader. Reading books is one of th ____ habits that helps one improve his or her focus.
(a) ideas, common 
(b) dimensions, constructive
(c) doors, interesting
(d) views, best
Answer 25: b

26. What major reason can Rashmi state in her article for deteriorating reading habits among students? 
(a) Academic pressure
(b) Sports 
(c) Digital technology 
(d) Friends
Answer 26: c

27. Select the option that lists suitable steps to be taken to improve reading habits among children. 
(i) Gift them books in 
(ii) Take them on trips to a library 
(iii) Encourage them to read textbooks
(iv) Create a reading space for children 
(v) Take children on field trips. 
(a) i, ii & iv
(b) i, iii & v 
(c) ii, iii & iv
(d) i, iv & v

Answer 27: a

28. Select the option that best describes the importance of reading habit: 
(a) A book is a gift you can open again and again – Garrison Keillor 
(b) Reading is a conversation. All books talk, but a good book listens as well – Mark Haddon 
(c) The greatest gift is a passion for reading – Elizabeth Hardwick 
(d) Books are a uniquely portable magic-Stephen King

Answer 28: b  

29. Read the following statements : 
(i) An article is a written piece of communication published for a large/targeted audience. 
(ii) An article is an interactive communication with a selected audience. 
(a) (i) is false and (ii) is true. 
(b) (i) is true and (ii) is false. 
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are true. 
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
Answer 29: b

30. The title of an article must not be
(a) clear and attractive 
(b) eye-catching 
(c) interesting
(d) lengthy 

Answer 30: d

SECTION -C
Read the extract given below to attempt the questions that follow: 
Mukesh insists on being his own master. “I will be a motor mechanic”, he announces. 
“Do you know anything about cars ?” I ask. 
“I will learn to drive a car,” he answers, looking straight into my eyes. His dream looms like a mirage amidst the dust of streets that fill his town Firozabad, famous for its bangles. Every other family in Firozabad is engaged in making bangles. It is the centre of India’s glass blowing industry where families have spent generations working around furnaces, welding glass, making bangles for all the women in the land it seems. Mukesh’s family is among them. None of them know that it is illegal for children like him to work in glass furnaces with high temperatures, …
31. What does the author try to convey by the expression being his own
master’? 
(a) Mukesh is disobedient to the elders. 
(b) Mukesh is adamant in his behavior. 
(c) Mukesh takes his own decisions 
(d) Mukesh does not listen to others. 
Answer 31: c

32. Through the expression “… looking straight into my eyes the narrator is trying to convey (a) Mukesh displayed no fear in his eyes. 
(b) Mukesh was not feeling shy while speaking to the narrator. 
(c) Mukesh was conversing in a very friendly manner with the narrator. 
(d) Mukesh displayed his courage and determination in expressing his opinion.
Answer 32: d

33. “His dream looms like a mirage.’ This indicates
(a) Mukesh has no clear vision of his dream. 
(b) His dream is distorted and misleading. 
(c) His dream is elusive and illusive
(d) Mukesh’s dream is different from others.
Answer 33: d

34. “None of them know that it is illegal for children to work in glass furnaces. Select the inference in reference to the above statement. 
(a) The children are innocent and do not realise the hardships of life.
(b) Their illiteracy and ignorance are exploited by the unscrupulous businessmen.
(c) They have no one to support them legally to get out of the situation.
(d) The children are ready to work in glass furnaces due to their poverty.

Answer 34: d

35. Select the option that lists the facts about Firozabad
i. Almost all the families are engaged in bangle making.
ii. The children work as motor – mechanics.
iii. The children work in a hazardous situation.
iv. Firozabad is the centre for car making.
(a) i & ii
(b) ii & iii
(c) i & iii
(d) iii & iv

Answer 35: c

VI. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
I went to the pool when no one else was there. The place was quiet. The water was still, and the tiled bottom was as white and clean as a bathtub. I was timid about going in alone, so I sat on the side of the pool to wait for others
I had not been there long when a big bruiser of a boy, probably eighteen years old. He had thick hair on his chest. He was a beautiful physical specimen, with legs and arms that showed rippling muscles. He yelled. “Hi Skinny ! ‘How’d you like to be ducked ?

36. What impression do you form about the narrator?
(a) He is a beginner in swimming lessons. 
(b) He has made friends during his swimming lessons. 
(c) The big boy was well built and handsome. 
(d) The narrator lacks courage and confidence to enter the pool alone.

Answer 36: d

37. The description of the big boy by the narrator is one of 
(a) Complaint
(b) Admiration 
(c) Criticism
(d) Poise
Answer 37: b

38. Select the option that lists the probable reason for the big boy’s behavior towards the narrator. 
(a) his intention to frighten the narrator: 
(b) his desire to give him a surprise. 
(c) The place was quiet and odd. 
(d) The narrator was skinny and alone.

Answer 38: d

39. The figure of speech in the expression as white and clean as a bath tub’ is 
(a) Metaphor
(b) Alliteration 
(c) Simile
(d) Irony
Answer 39: c

40. The writing style of the narrator indicates that the passage can be classified under alan 
(a) Interview
(b) Autobiography 
(c) Fiction
(d) Short story
Answer 40: b

VII. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
What I want should not be 
confused with total inactivity 
Life is what it is about; 
I want no truck with death, 
If we were not so single-minded 
about keeping our lives moving – and for once could do nothing 
Perhaps a huge silence might interrupt this sadness of never understanding ourselves 
and of threatening ourselves with 
death.
41. The poet’s intention in the first line is to 
(a) give warning to the readers 
(b) give right direction to the readers 
(c) give choice to the readers 
(d) give a clarification to the readers
Answer 41: d

42. Select the option that best explains the stand of the poet in the
expression : “I want no truck with death”. 
(a) He advises people to escape death.
(b) He asserts that death is inevitable
(c) He assures that he does not advocate death.
(d) He expresses his desire not to die.
Answer 42: c

43. Select the option that aptly describes the tone of the poet in the expression : “If we were not so single minded’. 
(a) regretful
(b) critical 
(c) encouraging
(d) friendly

Answer 43: b

44. According to the poet who is to blame for the condition of threatening ourselves with death?

(a) Stressful life
(b) Keeping quiet 
(c) Lack of understanding 
(d) State of confusion

Answer 44: c

45. The tone of the poet in the expression “perhaps a huge silence might interrupt this sadness” is 
(a) unsure yet optimistic 
(b) sure and confident
(c) poetic & melodramatic 
(d) hopeful but not confident
Answer 45: a

VIII. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
“You are well”, Sadno agreed. He lowered his voice. “You are so well that I think if I put my boat on the shore tonight, with food and extra clothing in it, you might be able to row to that little island not far from the coast. It is Bo near the coast that it has not been worth fortifying. Nobody lives on it because in a storm it is submerged. But this is not the season of storms. You could live there until you saw a Korean fishing boat pass by. They pass quite near the island because the water is many fathoms deep there.” The young man stared at him, slowly comprehending. ‘Do I have to ? he asked.’
“I think so”, “Sadao said gently. “you understand – it is not hidden that you are here.”
46. The arrangements of food and clothing by Dr. Sadao portrays him as
(a) a kind and compassionate person 
(b) an experienced sailor
(c) a good event organizer 
(d) a good advisor

Answer 46: a

47. ‘not been worth fortifying’ indicates that it 
(a) has been left uncared for and neglected. 
(b) can be easily spotted by the Korean boats. 
(c) will be easy for the white man to enter the island. 
(d) is dangerous to stay there alone.
Answer 47: c

48. The speaker’s tone in the expression : “Do I have to ?” is 
(a) pleading
(b) commanding 
(c) irritated
(d) fear and doubt
Answer 48: d

49. “But this is not the season of storm.” Dr. Sadao tries to
(a) explain the situation 
(b) assure him of safety 
(c) educate him on climate 
(d) display his knowledge
Answer 49: b

50. “… it is not hidden that you are here.”
Dr. Sadao’s intention is: 
(a) to explain why he cannot stay there anymore. 
(b) to remind him that he has tried to hide his presence.
(c) to explain that it is necessary and good for both of them. 
(d) to assert that his house is not a hiding place.
Answer 50: a

IX. Attempt the following: 
51. “I had counted on the commotion to get to my desk without being seen.” In the light of Franz’s statement, select the option that rightly brings out his intention. 
(a) He tried to avoid his friends. 
(b) He tried to cheat his teacher M. Hamel. 
(c) He did not want to face the villagers in the class. 
(d) He wanted to escape M. Hamel’s scolding.
Answer 51: d

52. The poet Kamala Das brought in the image of ‘spilling children’ with the intention 
(a) of praising children. 
(b) of reminiscing her childhood. 
(c) of bringing in a contrast to the mood of the poet.
(d) of making her mother happy and cheerful.

Answer 52: c

53. “The stunted, unlucky heir of twisted bones
Select the option that best explains the expression : ‘unlucky heir 
(a) legacy to inherit the father’s possessions. 
(b) unlucky to live in a slum. 
(c) unfortunate to inherit his father’s disease. 
(d) unfortunate to study in dim classroom
Answer 53: c

54. Select the option that aptly describes Hana as a wife
(a) Hana is very possessive about her husband
(b) Hana is a very caring and responsible wife
(c) Hans is a very dominant wife,
(d) Hana is a very fussy and nagging wife.
Answer 54: b

55. She did not wish to be left alone with the white man. This thought of
Hans reveals the fact that 
(a) Hana hates white man 
(b) White men are dangerous. 
(c) War makes people enemies 
(d) Hana is timid and cautious
Answer 55: d

56. “And then sheer, stark terror seized me”
Which of the following options has used the same figure of speech as in the underlined phrase above?
(a) Sea waves pared frighteningly on a stormy night. 
(b) Fear is a poison 
(c) He roared like a lion in anger. 
(d) I am frightfully sorry for my mistakes

Answer 56: a

57. “The young men echo the lament of their elders.’ Select the option which indicates Anees Jung’s view on young men. 
(a) They don’t take any initiative. 
(b) They are as poor as their elders. 
(c) They are as helpless as their elders. 
(d) They don’t support their elders.

Answer 57: c

58. ‘would put on clean clothes. What does Pablo Neruda mean by ‘clean clothes’? 
(a) white dress to reflect peace.
(b) mind without courage and confidence 
(c) mind without confusion and fear 
(d) mind without hatred and prejudice

Answer 58: d

59. “But the jump made no difference. Select the option that reflects the tone of Douglas. 
(a) fear
(b) regret 
(c) anger
(d) grief

Answer 59: a
60. Suppose you were condemned to death and the next day I had to have my operation ?” The tone of the General indicates he is 
(a) worried about Dr. Sadao is a good scientist. 
(b) working against the law and order of the country 
(c) uncertain about his health condition 
(d) selfish and dependent on Dr. Sadao for his treatment.

Answer 60: d

The official answer keys will be uploaded on the website of the Central Board of School Examination i.e., cbse.nic.in.

India News

Case registered against Mamata Banerjee over controversial 2025 religion remark

A formal police case has been registered against Trinamool Congress supremo Mamata Banerjee in Siliguri, West Bengal. The complaint alleges that her 2025 “Ganda Dharm” remark targeted Hinduism and hurt the religious sentiments of the community.

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Mamata Banerjee

A formal police complaint has been lodged against Trinamool Congress (TMC) chief Mamata Banerjee in West Bengal’s Siliguri. The legal action stems from an alleged derogatory remark regarding Hinduism made during an Eid congregation in Kolkata in 2025.

The case was registered following a complaint filed by a local lawyer, Rinki Chatterjee, who alleged that the former Chief Minister’s comments deeply hurt the religious sentiments of Hindus globally.

Legal charges and complaint details

The police have invoked multiple sections under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) against Banerjee, including Section 351(1) for criminal intimidation, Section 352 for intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace, and Section 353 for promoting feelings of enmity, hatred, or ill will between different communities.

According to the complaint, the controversy traces back to an Eid event organized on Kolkata’s iconic Red Road in 2025. While delivering a speech targeting the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Banerjee purportedly referred to the version of Hinduism championed by the political rival as “Ganda Dharm” (filthy religion).

Chatterjee stated in her complaint that labeling Sanatan Dharma in such a manner at a religious gathering was “absolutely unacceptable”. The complainant also pointed to other instances where senior TMC leaders allegedly targeted Hinduism, adding that Banerjee made indirect threats to the Hindu community during the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election campaign to influence voters through intimidation.

Political responses to the FIR

The reported statements had previously drawn sharp criticism from the state BJP leadership last year, including strong objections from current Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari. However, this FIR represents the first formal legal action taken regarding the speech.

When approached for a response, Atri Sharma, a lawyer and general secretary of the TMC’s Darjeeling unit, declined to comment officially as a party spokesperson. However, he noted that many within the party internal circles found the remarks inappropriate at the time they were spoken. Sharma acknowledged that holding a high public office required restraint and affirmed that every individual holds the moral right to pursue legal remedies.

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India News

Enforcement Directorate raids former Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan’s residence in money laundering probe

The Enforcement Directorate on Wednesday carried out searches at the Thiruvananthapuram residence of former Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and 11 other locations in connection with a money-laundering probe registered in 2024.

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The Enforcement Directorate on Wednesday conducted extensive searches at the Thiruvananthapuram residence of former Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. The action comes as part of an ongoing money-laundering investigation, with the central probe agency executing simultaneous raids at 12 separate locations across the state under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

Broad Crackdown in Financial Probe

The central agency’s operations focused significantly on Vijayan’s rented residence in the state capital, alongside eleven other locations, including premises in Kochi, Kozhikode, Kannur, and Bengaluru. This major enforcement action was initiated shortly after the Kerala High Court dismissed a petition on Tuesday, which had been filed by Cochin Minerals And Rutile Ltd (CMRL) seeking to quash the ongoing ED proceedings.

The roots of the financial investigation trace back to a PMLA case registered in 2024. The core allegation involves an estimated illegal payment of ₹1.72 crore made between 2017 and 2019 by a private entity, Cochin Minerals And Rutile Ltd (CMRL), to Exalogic Solutions, an IT firm owned by Vijayan’s daughter, T Veena.

According to investigators, the financial transactions took place despite the IT firm allegedly rendering no services to the private company. Apart from the financial probe agency’s scrutiny, the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is also independently conducting an inquiry into the wider financial transactions of the matter.

Political Developments

The searches also covered locations linked to other political and executive figures associated with the matter, including premises connected to senior CMRL executives. While the ruling party has previously described the investigations as politically motivated, the central agency has intensified its probe following the high court’s refusal to grant interim relief to the private firm. The case has sparked intense political debate, with opposition parties using the findings to allege financial irregularities, while local party leaders maintain that the transactions were part of a legitimate business arrangement.

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IPL 2026 Qualifier 1: Rajat Patidar, Virat Kohli shatter playoff records as RCB crush GT to reach final

Defending champions Royal Challengers Bengaluru advanced to their second consecutive IPL final after a historic 92-run demolition of Gujarat Titans in Qualifier 1, powered by Rajat Patidar’s breathtaking 93*

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Defending champions Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB) created history in the Indian Premier League (IPL) 2026 Qualifier 1 against Gujarat Titans (GT), sealing their spot in a second consecutive final with a clinical 92-run victory on Tuesday.

Riding on captain Rajat Patidar’s blistering, unbeaten 93 off just 33 balls, Bengaluru piled up a colossal 254 for 5 in their 20 overs after being asked to bat first at the scenic Dharamsala stadium. The monumental total surpassed the previous playoff benchmark of 233 for 3, set by GT against Mumbai Indians in 2023, making it the highest-ever score in IPL playoff history. In response, a ruthless RCB bowling assault dismantled the Gujarat Titans batting line-up, bowling them out for 162 in 19.3 overs.

Patidar blitzkrieg anchors historic RCB innings

After GT skipper Shubman Gill won the toss and opted to field, RCB’s top order asserted early dominance by racing to 76 for 1 within the powerplay. Venkatesh Iyer provided a quickfire 19 off seven balls, while Devdutt Padikkal struck 30 off 19 deliveries to set a brisk tempo.

The foundation allowed Virat Kohli to maintain the middle-order momentum with a fluent 43 off 25 balls. With this knock, Kohli carved out another historic milestone, becoming the first player in IPL history to accumulate over 600 runs in four consecutive seasons. Jason Holder briefly checked RCB’s charge by removing both Kohli and Padikkal in the 10th over to leave them at 99 for 3.

However, skipper Rajat Patidar took complete control from there on. Surviving two dropped catches early on, Patidar launched a brutal counter-attack, smashing five fours and nine towering sixes at an astonishing strike rate of 281.81. He combined forces with Krunal Pandya, who played a crucial anchoring role with 43 off 28 balls, putting together a blistering 90-run partnership. Patidar turned particularly merciless in the death overs, hammering a massive over from Kulwant Khejroliya as RCB finished their death overs on an absolute high.

Gujarat Titans collapse under scoreboard pressure

Faced with a steep mountain to climb, the Gujarat Titans chase imploded right from the start, losing five wickets inside the powerplay against a lethal pace battery. Openers Sai Sudharsan and skipper Shubman Gill were dismissed in the third and fourth overs respectively.

Sudharsan, the tournament’s leading run-scorer, suffered a bizarre and unfortunate dismissal when his bat slipped during a cut shot, knocking back his own stumps to be out hit-wicket off Jacob Duffy. Gill followed shortly after, cleaned up by an excellent delivery from Bhuvneshwar Kumar.

Jos Buttler offered a brief, aggressive resistance by hitting four boundaries and two sixes in a quick 29, but Australian pacer Josh Hazlewood exacted quick revenge by clean-bowling him in the fifth over. From a precarious position, the Titans slipped further as Jacob Duffy tore through the middle order, dismissing Washington Sundar and Rashid Khan.

Rahul Tewatia was the lone warrior for the Titans, waging a solitary battle to smash a fighting 68. His aggressive hitting brought up the team’s hundred in the 13th over and dragged the side past the 150-mark. However, the target proved far too distant. Krunal Pandya claimed the final wicket in the final over, dismissing GT’s tailender Mohammed Siraj—who was caught by Tim David—to bundle out GT for 162, securing the second-largest victory margin in IPL playoff history for RCB.

While RCB marches straight into the grand finale with ultimate momentum, Gujarat Titans remain alive in the tournament. They will get another opportunity to reach the final when they play the winner of the Eliminator clash between Sunrisers Hyderabad and Rajasthan Royals in Qualifier 2.

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